Full Text:Volume 1C

From Criminal Law Notebook
See also: Full Text:Volume 1

Volume I: Criminal Law, cont.

Planned and Deliberate (Homicide)

"

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2018. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

First degree murder under s. 231(2) must be "planned and deliberate."[1]

It must be more than simply the "intention to cause death."[2]

There must be more than a "bare sufficiency of evidence" on planning and deliberation.[3]

There does not need to be care consideration of acts. Planning and deliberation can be made out by evidence of even a brief moment of consideration before the act.[4]

  1. s. 231(2) and R v PK, 2006 ABCA 284 (CanLII), 213 CCC (3d) 538, per Hunt JA, at paras 7 to 10
  2. R v McColeman, 1991 CanLII 338 (BCCA), 5 BCAC 128, per McEachern JA, at p. 9
  3. R v Denison, 2001 BCCA 703 (CanLII), 161 BCAC 169, per Ryan JA, at para 13
  4. e.g. R v MacDonald, 2000 NSCA 60 (CanLII), 573 APR 1, per Chipman JA (evidence showed offender said "sorry mate" before killing, and admitted doing it in front of a witness whom he trusted)

"Planned"

A "planned" murder refers to one that is "conceived and carefully thought out prior to being committed."[1]

It must have "a design or scheme be arranged beforehand."[2]

There must be contemplation as to the "nature and consequences" of the plan.[3]

As far as time is a consideration the focus is on the "time involved in developing the plan" and not the time between planning and execution.[4] However, it can be "simple and need not necessarily be in place for a long period of time"[5] Nor does it need to be a complicated plan.[6]

The plan "may be simple, and the time needed not be long."[7] But the killing must be "done after real consideration, and not suddenly or impulsively."[8]

The time between the planning and execution is generally not important.[9]

  1. R v Nygaard, 1989 CanLII 6 (SCC), [1989] 2 SCR 1074, per Cory J, at para 18
  2. R v Jacquard, 1997 CanLII 374 (SCC), [1997] 1 SCR 314, per Lamer CJ, at para 26
  3. R v Widdifield (1961), 6 Crim L.Q. 152 (Ont. H.C.J.)(*no CanLII links)
  4. Widdifield, supra
  5. Nygaard, supra, at para 18
  6. Hygaard, supra
    Widdifield, supra
  7. McColeman, supra
    R v Plewes, 2000 BCCA 278 (CanLII), 144 CCC (3d) 426, per Esson JA, at para 35
  8. McColeman, supra
  9. Plewes, supra

"Deliberate"

A "deliberate" murder is not impulsive. It must be a considered act[1] where "he thinks about the consequences and carefully thinks out the act, rather than proceeding hastily, rashly or impulsively"[2] It's "considered", "not impulsive", "cautious" and "slow in deciding" where the accused weighed the advantages nad disadvantages of his intention to act.[3] It connotes "a studied decision to kill reached after reflection for an appropriate time--a time sufficient to eliminate a sudden decision produced by impulse, passion, or emotion."[4] It is a "calculated scheme or design which has been carefully thought out, and the nature and consequences of which have been considered and weighed."[5]

  1. R v More, 1963 CanLII 79 (SCC), [1963] SCR 522, per Cartwright J and Judson J , at para 35
  2. R v Jacquard, 1997 CanLII 374 (SCC), [1997] 1 SCR 314, per Lamer CJ, at para 26
  3. R v Plewes, 2000 BCCA 278 (CanLII), 144 CCC (3d) 426, per Esson JA
  4. McColeman, supra, at p. 9
  5. Plewes, supra, at para 35

Impairments

Where a person is intoxicated, has a psychiatric illness or was provoked, any number of these circumstances are capable of raising doubt on whether the criminal act was "planned and deliberate."[1]

  1. R v Wallen, 1990 CanLII 146 (SCC), [1990] 1 SCR 827, per Lamer J

Proof

The elements of "planned and deliberate" can be proven on by circumstantial evidence.[1] However, it cannot be equivocal or speculative of whether it was "planned and deliberate."[2]

Omission

Omissions may serve as a basis to find an unlawful killing including murder.[3] Intentional neglect of a child with medical needs can amount to planned and deliberate intention to kill that child.[4]

  1. R v Mitchell, 1964 CanLII 42 (SCC), [1964] SCR 471, per Spence J, at para 41
  2. R v Duck, (1993), 85 Man.R. (2d) 91 (CA)(*no CanLII links) , at paras 36 to 38
  3. R v Bottineau, 2007 CanLII 13358 (ON SC), 2007 CarswellOnt 2330 (ONSC), per Watt J
    R v Bottineau, 2011 ONCA 194 (CanLII), 269 CCC (3d) 227, per curiam
    R v Radita, 2017 ABQB 128 (CanLII), per Horner J, at para 150
  4. e.g. Radita, ibid.

"

Murder by Unlawful Act or Object

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2017. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Murder (Offence)

First degree murder is defined under s. 231 as any murder that is "planned and deliberate" or any murder that relates to one or more enumerated unlawful acts listed in s. 231(3), (4), (5), (6), (6.01), and (6.1).These categories are sometimes considered the "constructive" form of murder.

Causation

Any instance of constructive first degree murder has an added element to the offence that the accused was a "substantial cause" of death.[1]

Foreseeability

There must be "subjective foresight of the likelihood of death." [2]

  1. R v Harbottle, 1993 CanLII 71 (SCC), [1993] 3 SCR 306, per Cory J at pp. 323-324
    see also Causation#Causation in Homicide
  2. R v Roks, 2011 ONCA 618 (CanLII), 284 CCC (3d) 510, per Watt JA

Types of Constructive Murder

Contract Murder

s. 231
[omitted (1) and (2)]

Contracted murder

(3) Without limiting the generality of subsection (2), murder is planned and deliberate when it is committed pursuant to an arrangement under which money or anything of value passes or is intended to pass from one person to another, or is promised by one person to another, as consideration for that other’s causing or assisting in causing the death of anyone or counselling another person to do any act causing or assisting in causing that death.
[omitted (4), (5), (6), (6.01), (6.1), (6.2) and (7)]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(3)

A contract murder is deemed to be planned and deliberate where there is:

  1. a murder;
  2. the murder "is committed pursuant to an arrangement";
  3. the arrangement involves "money or anything of value passes or is intended to pass from one person to another", or "is promised by one person to another"; and
  4. the money is "consideration for that other’s causing or assisting in causing the death of anyone or counseling another person to do any act causing or assisting in causing that death".

The requirement that the murder be "pursuant to an arrangement" must include an arrangement "in place at the time of the murder."[1]

  1. R v Smith, 2007 NSCA 19 (CanLII), 216 CCC (3d) 490, per Cromwell JA, at paras 137 and 139

Murder of an Officer, Sheriff or Guard

s. 231
[omitted (1), (2) and (3)]

Murder of peace officer, etc.

(4) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of any person, murder is first degree murder when the victim is

(a) a police officer, police constable, constable, sheriff, deputy sheriff, sheriff’s officer or other person employed for the preservation and maintenance of the public peace, acting in the course of his duties;
(b) a warden, deputy warden, instructor, keeper, jailer, guard or other officer or a permanent employee of a prison, acting in the course of his duties; or
(c) a person working in a prison with the permission of the prison authorities and acting in the course of his work therein.

[omitted (5), (6), (6.01), (6.1), (6.2) and (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(4)

Hijacking, sexual assault or kidnapping

First degree murder can be found in certain forms of "crimes of domination" such as those in s. 231(5).[1]

231.
[omitted (1), (2), (3) and (4)]

Hijacking, sexual assault or kidnapping

(5) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of any person, murder is first degree murder in respect of a person when the death is caused by that person while committing or attempting to commit an offence under one of the following sections:

(a) section 76 (hijacking an aircraft);
(b) section 271 (sexual assault);
(c) section 272 (sexual assault with a weapon, threats to a third party or causing bodily harm);
(d) section 273 (aggravated sexual assault);
(e) section 279 (kidnapping and forcible confinement); or
(f) section 279.1 (hostage taking).

[omitted (6), (6.01), (6.1), (6.2) and (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(5)

Forcible Confinement

For unlawful confinement to be an underlying offence to murder, there must be:[2]

  1. that a distinct act of confinement and the distinct act of killing must be sufficiently close in time to be part of the "same transaction or series of events" and
  2. that they cannot be so closely connect that they are coextensive, that the confinement is consumed in the killing, that they are one and the same.
Appeal

Whether a confinement actually occurred on the facts is a question of mixed fact and law and should be "subject to deference on appeal."[3]

  1. R v Magoon, 2016 ABCA 412 (CanLII), AJ No 1349, per Paperny JA (2:1), at paras 100 to 103
    R v Pritchard, 2008 SCC 59 (CanLII), 236 CCC (3d) 301, per Binnie J, at para 19
    R v Paré, 1987 CanLII 1 (SCC), [1987] 2 SCR 618, per Wilson J, at para 33
  2. R v Menard, 2009 BCCA 462 (CanLII), 281 BCAC 14, per curiam - re. 231(5)(e)
  3. Magoon, supra, at para 106

Criminal Harassment

231
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)]

Criminal harassment

(6) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of any person, murder is first degree murder when the death is caused by that person while committing or attempting to commit an offence under section 264 [criminal harassment] and the person committing that offence intended to cause the person murdered to fear for the safety of the person murdered or the safety of anyone known to the person murdered.
[omitted (6.01), (6.1), (6.2) and (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(6)

Terrorist Activity

231.
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)]

Murder — terrorist activity

(6.01) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of a person, murder is first degree murder when the death is caused by that person while committing or attempting to commit an indictable offence under this or any other Act of Parliament if the act or omission constituting the offence also constitutes a terrorist activity.
[omitted (6.1), (6.2) and (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(6.01)

Criminal Organization

231.
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (6.01)]

Murder — criminal organization

(6.1) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of a person, murder is first degree murder when

(a) the death is caused by that person for the benefit of, at the direction of or in association with a criminal organization; or
(b) the death is caused by that person while committing or attempting to commit an indictable offence under this or any other Act of Parliament for the benefit of, at the direction of or in association with a criminal organization.

[omitted (6.2) and (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(6.1)

Intimidation

231.
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (6.01) and (6.1)]

Intimidation

(6.2) Irrespective of whether a murder is planned and deliberate on the part of a person, murder is first degree murder when the death is caused by that person while committing or attempting to commit an offence under section 423.1.
[omitted (7)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 231; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 7, 35, 40, 185(F), c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18(F); 1997, c. 16, s. 3, c. 23, s. 8; 2001, c. 32, s. 9, c. 41, s. 9; 2009, c. 22, s. 5.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 231(6.2)

)

Definitions

Definition of Bodily Harm

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2020. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions
See also: Aggravated Assault (Offence) and Aggravated Sexual Assault (Offence)

Section 2 of the Criminal Code defines "bodily harm" as:

2
...
"bodily harm" means any hurt or injury to a person that interferes with the health or comfort of the person and that is more than merely transient or trifling in nature;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


Defined terms: "person" (s. 2)

Standard

Bodily harm is considered a "low threshold" to meet.[1]

It must be more than "a very short time period and an injury of very minor degree which results in a very minor degree of distress."[2] It must be "more than merely transient or trifling."[3]

Minor injuries that interfere with comfort for a "short time" can be found to be bodily harm, including small bruises, swelling and headaches.[4]

Bodily harm could include psychological injury to the victim.[5]

Once bodily harm was found, the wording of s. 2 only requires interference of "health" or comfort of the person.[6]

This definition is similar (if it is not word for word) to the English common law definition of actual bodily harm stated.[7]

Transient or Trifling

An injury must be both transient and trifling to be excluded from the definition.[8]

"Transient" has been interpreted as "[p]assing by or away with time; not durable or permanent; temporary, transitory"[9]

"Trifling" has been interpreted as "[o]f little moment or value; trumpery; insignificant, petty"[10]

It is wrong to conclude that merely because the injury heals in less than a week would not be bodily harm as serious life-threatening injuries can be of short duration.[11]

The court should look at the overall effect of the injuries, rather than the individual's injuries that may be trifling in isolation.[12]

Medical Evidence

It is not necessary to call medical evidence to prove bodily harm.[13]

Bruising

Generally mere bruising will not be bodily harm.[14] However, more serious bruising such as those which last 10 or more days or are present in the facial area will be considered bodily harm.[15]

Examples

Specific examples of bodily harm:[16]

  • fracture of the nasal bones [17]
  • scrapes, lacerations and bruises, especially around the eye and a large amount of hair pulled out by the roots[18]
  • superficial injuries, consisting primarily of bruising and abrasions less than an inch in length[19]
  • "a number of bruises to the neck and arms, a number of lacerations to the face, chest, shoulder and wrist that which cleared up within a week, difficulty speaking for three or four days as a result of choking and a scar on her forearm from a laceration"[20]
  • a sore neck that lasted for approximately one month[21]
  • small bruise on calf, small anal tear and deviated septum all of which would "resolve ... within a few days"[22]
  • bruises going away after 11 days, sore hand and sore throat.[23]

There is not necessarily a requirement of an injury being present for a certain duration to be considered bodily harm. The injury may be short and still not be trifling.[24]

Appeals

Whether facts meet the definition of "bodily harm" is reviewable on a standard of correctness.[25]

  1. R v Bulldog, 2015 ABCA 251 (CanLII), 326 CCC (3d) 385, per curiam, at para 44
    R v Dorscheid, 1994 ABCA 18 (CanLII), [1994] AJ No 56 (CA), per Cote JA, at para 11
  2. Bulldog, supra, at para 44
    R v Dixon, 1988 CanLII 2824 (BC CA), 42 CCC (3d) 318 at 332, [1988] 5 WWR 577, per Carrothers JA
  3. R v Kooner, 2023 BCCA 8 (CanLII), per Griffin JA, at para 50
  4. Kooner, ibid. at para 50
    R v Dixon, 1988 CanLII 2824 (BC CA), 42 CCC (3d) 318, per Carrothers JA, at para 45
    R v Bulldog, 2015 ABCA 251 (CanLII), 326 CCC (3d) 385, per curiam, at para 44
    R v CK, 2001 BCCA 379 (CanLII), per Hall JA, at paras 7 to 9
  5. R v McCraw, 1991 CanLII 29 (SCC), [1991] 3 SCR 72, 66 CCC (3d) 517, per Cory J
    see also R v C.D.; R v CDK, 2005 SCC 78 (CanLII), [2005] 3 SCR 668, per Bastarache J
  6. Dixon, supra
  7. R v Donovan [1934] 2 KB 498 (also 25 Cr. App. Rep.1 CCA) (UK) at page 509 and R v Chan-Fook [1994] 2 All ER 552 (UK) at 557D where the reference to transient or trifling injuries is taken as applying to actual bodily harm rather than bodily harm
  8. R v JA, 2010 ONCA 226 (CanLII), 253 CCC (3d) 153, per Simmons JA - reversed on other grounds at [2011] 2 SCR 440
  9. Dixon, supra, at p. 331
  10. Dixon, supra, at p. 331
  11. R v Garrett (1995), 169 AR 394 (CA)(*no CanLII links)
  12. Garrett, ibid.
  13. R v Giroux, 1995 ABCA 393 (CanLII), [1995] AJ No 900 (CA), per Fraser CJ (2:1)
  14. R v Dupperon, 1984 CanLII 61 (SK CA), 16 CCC (3d) 453, per curiam
  15. R v Dixon, 1988 CanLII 205 (YK CA), 64 CR (3d) 372, per Carrothers JA
  16. See R v Moquin, 2010 MBCA 22 (CanLII), 253 CCC (3d) 96, per Beard JA
  17. R v Papalia, 2012 BCSC 245 (CanLII), per Bruce J, at para 135
  18. R v Dorscheid, 1994 ABCA 18 (CanLII), [1994] AJ No 56 (CA), per Cote JA, at para 11
  19. R v Rabieifar (A.), 2003 CanLII 22353 (ON CA), [2003] OJ No 3833 (CA), per curiam
  20. Moquin, supra
  21. Giroux, supra
  22. R v CK, 2001 BCCA 379 (CanLII), BCJ No 1119, per Hall JA, at para 3
  23. Moquin, supra, at paras 32, 33
  24. R v Dixon, 1988 CanLII 205 (YK CA), 64 CR (3d) 372, per Carrothers JA
  25. R v Bulldog, 2015 ABCA 251 (CanLII), 326 CCC (3d) 385, per curiam, at para 18
    R v Morin, 1992 CanLII 40 (SCC), [1992] 3 SCR 286 at 294, 66 CCC (3d) 193, per Sopinka J

,

Definition of Child Pornography

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2021. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

Under s. 163.1, "Child Pornography" is defined as:

Definition of “child pornography”

163.1 (1) In this section, "child pornography” means

(a) a photographic, film, video or other visual representation, whether or not it was made by electronic or mechanical means,
(i) that shows a person who is or is depicted as being under the age of eighteen years and is engaged in or is depicted as engaged in explicit sexual activity, or
(ii) the dominant characteristic of which is the depiction, for a sexual purpose, of a sexual organ or the anal region of a person under the age of eighteen years;
(b) any written material, visual representation or audio recording that advocates or counsels sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act;
(c) any written material whose dominant characteristic is the description, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act; or
(d) any audio recording that has as its dominant characteristic the description, presentation or representation, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act.

[omitted (2), (3), (4), (4.1), (4.2), (4.3), (5), (6) and (7)]
1993, c. 46, s. 2; 2002, c. 13, s. 5; 2005, c. 32, s. 7; 2012, c. 1, s. 17.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 163.1(1)

The determination of whether the material meets the definition is a question of law:

163.1
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (4.1), (4.2), (4.3), (5) and (6)]

Question of law

(7) For greater certainty, for the purposes of this section, it is a question of law whether any written material, visual representation or audio recording advocates or counsels sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act.

1993, c. 46, s. 2; 2002, c. 13, s. 5; 2005, c. 32, s. 7; 2012, c. 1, s. 17.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 163.1(7)

Categories of Child Pornography

The section sets out five types of child pornography:

  1. images of sexual activity: visual representations that "shows a person who is or is depicted as being under the age of eighteen years and is engaged in or is depicted as engaged in explicit sexual activity" (s. 163.1(1)(a)(i))
  2. images of a sexual purpose:visual representations where "the dominant characteristic of which is the depiction, for a sexual purpose, of a sexual organ or the anal region of a person under the age of eighteen years" (s. 163.1(1)(a)(ii))
  3. text advocating or counselling sexual activity: written material "that advocates or counsels sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be" a criminal offence (s. 163.1(1)(b))
  4. sexual purpose texts: written material where the "dominant characteristic is the description, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be" a criminal offence (s. 163.1(1)(c))
  5. sexual purpose audio recordings: audio recording with a "dominant characteristic the description, presentation or representation, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be" a criminal offence (s. 163.1(1)(d))

Context

Proof that a file is child pornography cannot be done simply through establishing that the accused's computer had a file with a corresponding hash value to a known child pornographic file from a police database such as the Wyoming database. This is because the hash value is hearsay and there is no direct evidence on the management of these databases which are largely maintained outside of Canada under different laws.[1] It is, however, sufficient to establish reasonable grounds for a search warrant.[2]

Audio

A recorded message made on a telephone chat-line containing graphic descriptions of sexual activity between adults and children may meet the definition.[3]

  1. R v Lamb, 2010 BCSC 1911 (CanLII), BCJ No 2701, per Ehrcke J, at paras 41 to 47
  2. Lamb, ibid., at para 43
  3. R v Fisher, 2020 SKQB 197 (CanLII), 65 CR (7th) 475, per McCreary J

Elements

Visual Representation of Explicit Sexual Activity

The definition under s. 163.1(1)(a)(i) has four elements:

  1. Person under the age of 18 years or appears to be under the age of 18 years
  2. Depiction explicit sexual activity
Visual Representation with Sexual Dominant Character

The definition under s. 163.1(1)(a)(ii) has four elements:

  1. Person under the age of 18 years or appears to be under the age of 18 years
  2. Depiction of a Sexual Organ or Anal Region
  3. Dominant Characteristic
  4. For a Sexual Purpose
Written Material That Advocates or Counsels

The definition under s. 163.1(1)(c) has four elements:

  1. written materials
  2. materials are advocate or counsels sexual activity with persons
  3. persons are those under the age of 18

Persons

"Person" refers to both real individuals and imaginary human beings.[1]

  1. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at paras 37 to 41

"Visual Representation"

A "visual representation" refers to "any non-textual representation that can be perceived visually". This captures many media including photographs, film, video, drawings, prints, computer graphics, and sculpture. It is not important whether it was made by mechanical or electronic means.[1]

  1. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at para 35

"Depiction"

The use of the term "depict" is intended to be from the perspective of a reasonable person, not simply what the maker intends or observer perceives.[1] It would be inconsistent for a picture to be child pornographic in one person's hand and not pornographic in another person's hand.[2] The question is "would a reasonable observer perceive the person in the representation as being under 18 and engaged in explicit sexual activity?"[3]

Under this test of depiction, a 50-year old dressed as a child would not amount to the depiction of a person under 18 years old.[4]

  1. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at para 42
  2. Sharpe, ibid., at para 43
    cf. R v Rowe, 2011 ONCA 48 (CanLII), per curiam
  3. Sharpe, supra, at para 43
  4. R v Garbett, 2008 ONCJ 97 (CanLII), 56 CR (6th) 91, per MacDonnell J, at para 74

"Is" vs "Depicts"

Under the first category of child pornography under s. 163.1(1)(a)(i), the Crown must prove that the image or video "shows" a person who "is" or is "depicted" as being under the age of 18 and involved sexually explicit activity.[1]It is suggested that visual representations under the "is" category do not need to depict any particular age.[2]

  1. R v Garbett, 2008 ONCJ 97 (CanLII), 56 CR (6th) 91, per MacDonnell J, at para 70
  2. R v Rowe, 2011 ONCA 48 (CanLII), per curiam

Person Under the Age of 18

Establishing actual age and apparent age

Judges should not speculate or guess on the age or apparent age. The judge cannot distinguish between an age just below 18 and an age above 18. [1] Courts have taken judicial notice that "assessing the age of an adolescent person or young adult is not always an obvious task."[2]

However, a judge may assess "apparent age" without extrinsic proof of age or expert evidence, and determination will turn on the facts of the case.[3]

Physical Characteristics

While it is generally understood that physical characteristics of body under-development are consistent with girls under the age of 18, "some adult women are thin, lack, musculature, and have minimal breast development. Further, the amount of natural body hair, pubic or otherwise, that adults have varies from individual to individual." [4]

Factors to determine age include:[5]

  1. absence of pubic hair;
  2. a buoyancy to the subject's skin which is indicative of a young age;
  3. no marks or blemishes on the subject's skin which one would expect on adult skin (moles, scars, calluses, wrinkles, etc.);
  4. absence of facial hair,
  5. child-like facial structure;
  6. clothing suggestive of children (child themed pajamas)
Factors Extrinsic to the Medium

The file name does not add to the determination of whether the file depicts someone under the age of 18. It is accepted that the file names are often mislabeled.[6]

Collage Photos

A child's face pasted upon images of adult pornography may amount to child pornography.[7]

  1. R v Loring, 2001 BCSC 200 (CanLII), 54 WCB (2d) 617, per Wilson J, at paras 14, 15 ("In the absence of any evidence of the ages of the other persons depicted in these video recordings, Mr. Lauder submits that it is open to me to make a finding of "apparent age" by looking at the video recording. I have no expertise in assessing the age of young persons. I have no confidence that I would be able to give a reliable opinion on "apparent age" or otherwise, which would permit a distinction between one aged seventeen years and nine months, and one aged eighteen years one month. My confidence is in no way enhanced if I am asked to distinguish between an eighteen year old and a fifteen, sixteen or seventeen year old. These matters ought not to be determined on a guess. I decline Mr. Lauder's invitation to speculate on the apparent age of the unidentified persons depicted in the video recording.")
    cited with approval by R v Garbett, 2008 ONCJ 97 (CanLII), 56 CR (6th) 91, per MacDonnell J, at para 84 ("question that remains is whether the Crown has proved beyond a reasonable doubt that either of the persons in image #41 is or would be perceived by a reasonable observer as being under the age of eighteen years. I have been left to make that determination on the basis of my own experience and knowledge[11]. That is a daunting task, and I am not the first judge to recognize the problems inherent in it.")
  2. R v Keough, 2011 ABQB 312 (CanLII), 271 CCC (3d) 486, per Manderscheid J, at para 121
  3. R v Lanning, 2012 ABPC 171 (CanLII), per Ayotte J, at para 23
  4. R v Garbett, 2008 ONCJ 97 (CanLII), 56 CR (6th) 91, per MacDonnell J, at para 90
    Lanning, supra, at para 23
  5. R v AW, 2012 ONCJ 560 (CanLII), OJ No 4184, per Kastner J, at para 22
  6. R v Lamb, 2010 BCSC 1911 (CanLII), BCJ No 2701, per Ehrcke J, at para 42
  7. R v Grobbelaar, 2016 ONCJ 832 (CanLII), per Sparrow J, at para 37 R v FHO, 2014 ABCA 30 (CanLII), AJ No 49, per curiam - not addressed directly, there is reference to consideration of Sharpe defence, implying it was CP
    US: US v Anderson 759 F3d 891 (CA8 2014)

"Explicit Sexual Activity"

"Explicit sex" does not include simple nudity.[1] "Explicit sexual activity" refers to "acts which viewed objectively fall at the extreme end of the spectrum of sexual activity – acts involving nudity or intimate sexual activity, represented in a graphic and unambiguous fashion, with persons under or depicted as under 18 years of age." This does not include “casual sexual contact, like touching, kissing, or hugging, since these are not depictions of nudity or intimate sexual activity.”[2] It may, however, capture the "graphic depiction" of a naked female breast being caressed.[3]

Parliament intended that a "restrained interpretation" be taken. This should capture "intimate sexual activity represented in a graphic and unambiguous manner."[4]

Explicit sexual activity will include:

  • vaginal and anal intercourse.[5]
  • fellatio and cunnilingus[6]
  • male or female masturbation and ejaculation, and the "utilization of sexual aids."[7]
  • bondage[8]
  • bestiality[9]
  • sleeping child's face in close proximity to a adult sexual organ[10]

Whether the intercourse is actually happening or simply simulated is irrelevant in consideration of whether the image or video depicts it.[11]

  1. R v Smith, 2005 CanLII 23805 (ON CA), [2005] OJ No 2811, per Lang JA at 36
  2. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at para 49
  3. Sharpe, ibid., at para 49
  4. Sharpe, ibid., at para 48
  5. R v Pecchiarich, [2001] OJ No 3940 (ONSC)(*no CanLII links) , at para 4
  6. Pecchiarich, ibid., at para 4
    R v Yau, 2011 ONSC 1009 (CanLII), OJ No 720, per MacDonnell J, at para 23
    R v Garbett, 2008 ONCJ 97 (CanLII), 56 CR (6th) 91, per MacDonnell J, at para 83 - regarding cunnilingus
  7. R v Hawkins, 1993 CanLII 8587 (ON CA), 86 CCC (3d) 246, per Robins JA - "male ejaculation, masturbation", and the "utilization of sexual aids"
    R v DDM, 2011 ABPC 9 (CanLII), per Allen J - depict female "with her hands between her thighs apparently masturbating"
    R v Braudy, 2009 CanLII 2491 (ON SC), per Stinton J
  8. R v Ewing, [2007] OJ No 1710(*no CanLII links) , at para 50
  9. Ewing, ibid., at para 50
  10. R v G, 2004 NSCA 7 (CanLII), 694 APR 318, per Cromwell JA
  11. e.g. R v Rowe, 2011 ONCA 48 (CanLII), per curiam

"Dominant Characteristic" and "Sexual Purpose"

Standard

A court should take an "objective approach" to considering "dominant characteristic" and "sexual purpose."[1]

Test to satisfy s. 163.1(a)(ii) is to ask whether a reasonable viewer, looking at the pictures objectively and in context, would see their dominant characteristic as the depiction for a sexual purpose of a sexual organ or the anal region of a person under the age of eighteen”.[2]

Assessing the dominant characteristic requires examining of the whole work and not only segments or passages.[3]

Sexual Purpose[4]
Images of clothed children can be considered child pornography where there is "a dominant prurient purpose."[5] The dominant characteristic of an image can be influenced by the context of the image.[6] For example, where a photo of a bathing child in a family photo album will be treated differently than in the context of a album of sexual materials. [7]

“Sexual purpose” is determined similarly where it was reasonably perceived as intended to cause sexual stimulation to some viewers.[8]

It is not necessary for there to be an "extreme" sexual purpose.[9]

Factors to Determine Purpose

Context will include factors such as whether the pictures were taken surreptitiously.[10] It is not determinative where there is nudity only and no overt sexual activities.[11]

Factors to consider include the posing of the subject, such that the pose has sexual connotations to it, as well as captions that may create a sexual meaning to the image.[12]

Surreptitious recordings of girls in the bathroom can be child pornography.[13]

  1. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at para 50
  2. Sharpe, supra, at paras 50 to 51
  3. Godbout c. Procureure générale du Québec, 2020 QCCS 2967 (CanLII), {{{4}}}, at para 100
    R v Rubin, 1962 CanLII 80 (SCC), [1962] S.C.R. 681(complete citation pending) Brodie v. The Queen, 1962 CanLII 80 (SCC), [1962] S.C.R. 681(complete citation pending)
  4. See also Sexual Interference (Offence)
  5. R v Rudiger, 2011 BCSC 1397 (CanLII), 278 CCC (3d) 524, per Voith J, at paras 129 to 140
  6. R v JEI, 2005 BCCA 584 (CanLII), 204 CCC (3d) 137, per Finch JA [also referred to as R v Ilhas]
  7. Rudiger, supra, at para 140
    Sharpe, supra, at paras 50, 51
  8. Sharpe, supra, at paras 50 to 51
  9. JEI, supra
  10. JEI, supra
  11. JEI, supra
  12. R v Hurtubise, 1997 CanLII 1838 (BC SC), per KJ Smith J at 16, 17 cited positively in Sharpe at 51
  13. Ilhas, supra

"Sexual Organs and Anal Region"

"Sexual organ" can include bare breasts.[1] "Anal region" may include buttocks.[2]

  1. R v VPS, 2001 BCSC 619 (CanLII), 50 WCB (2d) 34, per Bauman CJ, at para 82
    R v DDM, 2011 ABPC 9 (CanLII), per Allen J, at paras 158 to 172
    R v Nedelec, 2001 BCSC 1334 (CanLII), BCJ No 2243, per Wedge J
    R v Knox, 2010 ONSC 330 (CanLII), 251 CCC (3d) 272, per Dambrot J
    R v TW, 2014 ONSC 4532 (CanLII), OJ No 3667, per KL Campbell J, at paras 12 to 13
  2. R v Rudiger, 2010 BCPC 182 (CanLII), per Blaskovits J, at para 30

Written Materials and Texts

Definition of “child pornography”

163.1 (1) In this section, “child pornography” means...

(b) any written material, visual representation or audio recording that advocates or counsels sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act;
(c) any written material whose dominant characteristic is the description, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a person under the age of eighteen years that would be an offence under this Act; or

...
[omitted (2), (3), (4), (4.1), (4.2), (4.3), (5), (6) and (7)]
1993, c. 46, s. 2; 2002, c. 13, s. 5; 2005, c. 32, s. 7; 2012, c. 1, s. 17.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 163.1(1)

Writings in the form of electronic communications, such as text messages or chatroom logs, are capable of constituting child pornography.[1] This will still be the case even when the communications are strictly private between the accused and another person.[2]

Purpose of Criminalizing Text-based Child Pornography

The purpose of criminalizing text-based child pornography is aimed to prevent offenders from sending the message that sex with children "can and should be pursued."[3] It seeks to prevent the "normalization" of child sexual abuse and prevent the dissemination of the idea of children as sexual objects to be abused.[4]

Actively Inducing or Encouraging

A communication will be captured by s. 163.1(1)(c) where the materials when "viewed objectively" is seen as "actively inducing or encouraging the described offences" against a young person.[5] This may be implicit from the narrative of the stories themselves, by sending messages that "sex with children can and should be pursued."[6]

Chat logs and text messages that depict sexually explicit activity with a person under the age of 18 or depict a conversation between adults inducing or encouraging sexual activity with persons under 18 may also meet the definition of child pornography.[7]

"counselling of advocacy"

Interpretation of counselling or advocacy under s. 163.1(1)(b) suggests a neccessary "inducement" that "need not be overt" and can be "subtle or implied."[8]

Jokes, Fantasy and Role-playing

see Agree or Arrange a Sexual Offence Against Child (Offence)#Fantasy and Roleplaying vs Reality

Alleged textual child pornography does not become more or less likely to meet the definition based on the motive of the person who creates or distributes it.[9]

  1. R v McSween, 2020 ONCA 343 (CanLII), per Trotter JA, at para 51
    R v Gagne, 2011 QCCA 2157 (CanLII), per curiam, at para 14
    R v Tomasik, 2016 ONSC 3719 (CanLII), per Hennessy J, at para 95
    R v AR, 2017 ONCJ 849 (CanLII), per Latimer J, at paras 24 to 25
  2. McSween, supra, at para 55
  3. R v Levin, 2015 ONCJ 290 (CanLII), 122 WCB (2d) 179, per McArthur J, at para 100 (" For the making child pornography count, the section aims to prevent offenders from sending the message that "sex with children can and should be pursued". The section seeks to prevent the normalization of child sexual abuse and the dissemination of the offensive idea that children are sexual objects who are there to be abused by depraved predators. ... Children as a group are thus protected by the prohibition on making written child pornography. ...")
  4. Levin, ibid., at para 100
    R v Beattie, 2005 CanLII 10273 (ON CA), 201 CCC (3d) 533, per Laskin JA leave to SCC denied
  5. R v Sharpe, 2001 SCC 2 (CanLII), [2001] 1 SCR 45, per McLachlin CJ, at para 56
  6. Beattie, supra
  7. e.g. Template:CanLIIRN, per Deluzio J at para 38
  8. R v AR, 2017 ONCJ 849 (CanLII), per Latimer J, at para 19
    Beattie, supra, at paras 21 to 23
  9. McSween, supra

Proof of Child Pornography

Evidence of the "hash values and their correspondence with the Wyoming database" is not admissible to prove that the image is child pornographic.[1]

  1. R v Lamb, 2010 BCSC 1911 (CanLII), BCJ No 2701, per Ehrcke J, at para 44

Other Jurisdictions

In US federal law defines Child Pornography under s. 2256(8) of Title 18, US Code.

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laws_regarding_child_pornography

See Also

External Links
  • Tanner scale method of measuring age based on physical developments
  • COPINE Scale for categorizing types of child pornography
  • Dost Test, the US test to determine if something is child pornographic,

Definition of Dwelling House

General Principles

See also: Break and Enter (Offence)

"Dwelling house" is defined in section 2:

2 In this Act,
...
"dwelling-house" means the whole or any part of a building or structure that is kept or occupied as a permanent or temporary residence, and includes

(a) a building within the curtilage of a dwelling-house that is connected to it by a doorway or by a covered and enclosed passage-way, and
(b) a unit that is designed to be mobile and to be used as a permanent or temporary residence and that is being used as such a residence;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Factors

Factors to consider include:[1]

  • the intention of the builder;
  • the traditional use;
  • the type of temporary use;
  • the seasonal use;
  • the actual use; and
  • the character of the building.
Detached Building

Detached building on private property does not usually amount to dwelling. [2]

Empty, Abandoned or Incomplete Building

An incomplete building does not constitute a dwelling.[3] However, an abandoned building however is one.[4]

A house which is not occupied can still retain its character as a dwelling-house.[5]

Certain types places will lose their dwelling-house status from non-use. A house may be abandoned for a period of time, dilapidated, boarded-up, and "not intending to be live[d] in ...again" rendering it a non-dwelling.[6]

A "dwelling-house" for the purpose of a conviction under s. 348 for a break and enter will not include a building under construction that has not been occupied as a residence.[7]

Garage or Driveway

A driveway is not a dwelling house; it is a place where people drive and park their vehicles.[8]

A garage or parkade under the residential building is also a dwelling-house.[9]

Hotel or Motel

A motel room,[10] camp,[11] can be a dwelling.

Moveable Shelters

Living in a truck does not render the vehicle a dwelling house.[12]

Curtilage

"Curtilage" in US law is meant to "include all buildings in close proximity to a dwelling, which are continually used for carrying on domestic employment; or such place as is necessary and convenient to a dwelling and is habitually used for family purposes."[13]

The meaning of curtilage has been defined in domestic courts as "the land or yard adjoining a house, usually within an enclosure."[14]

Relationship with CDSA Definition

The definition of "dwelling-house" in the Code has no interdependence with the definition in the CDSA.[15]

  1. R v Sappier, 2005 NBPC 37 (CanLII), 34 CR (6th) 313, per Ferguson J
  2. R v NM, 2007 CanLII 31570 (ON SC), 223 CCC (3d) 417, per Hill J
  3. Sappier, supra
  4. R v DeWolfe (1988), 82 N.S.R.(2d) 175 (CA)(*no CanLII links)
  5. De Wolfe, supra - a house that was emptied a month prior was a dwelling
  6. R v Paquet, 1978 CanLII 2510 (ON CA), [1978] OJ No 980 (O.C.A.), per Martin JA - abandoned three years, falling apart
    R v Tapley, 2013 NBPC 8 (CanLII), per Brien J - 3 months abandoned
  7. R v Sappier, 2005 NBPC 37 (CanLII), 34 CR (6th) 313, per Ferguson J
  8. R v Evans, 1996 CanLII 248 (SCC), [1996] 1 SCR 8, at para 32
  9. R v Chomik, 2011 ABPC 152 (CanLII), 234 CRR (2d) 109, per Kerby J
  10. R v Henderson, [1975] 1 WWR 360 (BCPC)(*no CanLII links)
  11. R v Nowlan, 2009 NBQB 117 (CanLII), 894 APR 39, per Ferguson J
  12. R v MacDonald, 2020 NSCA 69 (CanLII), per Derrick JA, at para 99
  13. United States v Potts, 297 F.2d 68 [6th Cir. 1961]
  14. R v Le (TD), 2011 MBCA 83 (CanLII), 275 CCC (3d) 427, per Scott CJ, at para 83
    R v Beune, 2005 BCPC 175 (CanLII), BCJ No 1082, per Dhillon J, at para 31
  15. MacDonald, supra, at para 98

,

Definition of Weapons

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2020. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Definition of Firearms
categories of weapons

A number offences in the Criminal Code concern "weapons". Those offences include:

Section 2 of the Code includes the definition of weapon:

2
...
"weapon" means any thing used, designed to be used or intended for use

(a) in causing death or injury to any person, or
(b) for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person

and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a firearm and, for the purposes of sections 88 [possession of weapon for dangerous purpose], 267 [assault with a weapon or causing bodily harm] and 272 [sexual assault with a weapon or causing bodily harm], any thing used, designed to be used or intended for use in binding or tying up a person against their will;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

2
...
"offensive weapon" has the same meaning as “weapon”; ...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Similarly in s. 2.1:

Further definitions — firearms

2.1 In this Act, "ammunition", "antique firearm", "automatic firearm", "cartridge magazine", "cross-bow", "handgun", "imitation firearm", "prohibited ammunition", "prohibited device", "prohibited firearm", "prohibited weapon", "replica firearm", "restricted firearm" and "restricted weapon", as well as "authorization", "licence" and "registration certificate" when used in relation to those words and expressions, have the same meaning as in subsection 84(1) [firearms and other weapons — definitions].
2009, c. 22, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2.1

Proof of an item as a weapon depends on all of the circumstances. The determination involves a subjective test of whether the accused intended to use the item as a weapon.[1]

Whether an object is a weapon is a subjective test and depends on all the circumstances. The accused must have intended to use of the object as a weapon.[2]

A weapon includes: [3]

  1. anything designed to be used as a weapon;
  2. anything that a person uses as a weapon, whether that thing is designed as a weapon or not; and
  3. anything that one intends to use as a weapon regardless of its design.

A suggested general analytical approach to determine whether an object is a "weapon" under s. 2 requires the Court to ask the following three questions: [4]

  1. Did the accused in fact use the object to cause death or injury, or to threaten or intimidate any person?
  2. Did the accused intend to use the object to cause death or injury or to threaten or intimidate any person?
  3. Was the object being carried by the accused designed to be used in causing death or injury to any person, or for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person?

If the answer to any of these questions is in the affirmative, the Crown has proven that the object was a weapon."[5] The third question was considered in greater detail. The judge stated that the test for determining whether the object was designed to be used requires the following questions:

  1. Is the object’s design such that it could be readily usable to cause death or injury to any person or to threaten or intimidate any person?
  2. In all of the circumstances, would the carrying of the concealed object cause the reasonable person to fear for his own safety or for the public safety, if he were aware of the presence of the object?

If the answer to both of these questions is "yes", then the object will be considered a weapon. This requires looking at the object itself and the context of it being possessed.

Weapons do not need to be restricted to inanimate objects. A dog can be found to be a weapon.[6]

The focus is generally not on the nature of the object but on its use and capacity to cause bodily harm or death.[7]

  1. R v Roberts, 1990 CanLII 2524 , per Jones JA
  2. Roberts, ibid.
    R v Murray, 1991 CanLII 7116 (ON CA), 65 CCC (3d) 507, per curiam
  3. R v Califoux, 1973 CanLII 1355 (BC CA), 14 CCC (2d) 526 (BCCA), per Branca JA at 13
  4. R v DAC, 2007 ABPC 171 (CanLII), 428 AR 355, per Dalton J
  5. DAC, ibid., at para 75
  6. R v McLeod, 1993 CanLII 14674 (YK CA), 84 CCC (3d) 336, per Toy JA
  7. McLeod, ibid. ("focus of the definition has been shifted from the character of the instrumentality in question to the result of its use or the purpose for which it was used.")
    R v Richards, 1992 CanLII 2601 (NS CA), 72 CCC (3d) 349, per Hallett JA ("an object may become a weapon whether designed for that purpose or not, if it is used to cause death or injury or alternatively if the possessor intended to use it to cause death or injury.")

Specific Items

Other types of Guns

Any device that fits the definition of firearm will be a weapon.[1]

Pellet guns, paint guns and the like are variable:

  • a starting pistol is an imitation of a weapon.[2]
  • pellet gun not necessarily a weapon[3]. One suggestion is that a pellet gun can be a firearm where it passes the "pig's eye test", which considers whether the pellet's velocity surpasses 246 feet per second, which is sufficient to cause serious bodily harm.[4]
  1. R v Felawka, 1993 CanLII 36 (SCC), [1993] 4 SCR 199, per Cory J
    R v Formosa, 1992 CanLII 12828 (ON CA), (1993) 79 CCC (3d) 95, per curiam ("all objects which are firearms as defined in s. 84 come within the definition of "weapon" found in s. 2 of the Criminal Code")
    cf. R v James, 2011 ONCJ 125 (CanLII), per Duncan J
  2. R v Boutilier, [1977] 4 WWR 443 (BCCA)(*no CanLII links)
  3. R v Labrecque, 2011 ONCA 360 (CanLII), per curiam
  4. R v Crawford, 2015 ABCA 175 (CanLII), 322 CCC (3d) 528, per Martin JA
    R v Maguire, 2012 ONCJ 366 (CanLII), per Cooper J, at para 12 ("it can still be a firearm for non-registration and non-licensing offences if it is capable of causing serious bodily injury or death, and this threshold is met when the muzzle velocity is 246 feet per second or greater. At this speed the projectile can puncture an eye, and this is the standard used to measure “serious bodily harm.” A learned paper is attached to this Firearm Examination Report, which reveals that pig eyes, not human eyes, were used in the scientic experiment which was conducted.")
    R v Sather, 2008 ONCJ 98 (CanLII), per Blouin J, at para 13

Brass Knuckles

Under the Ontario Prohibited Weapons Order No.8 SOR/79-583, brass knuckles are classified as prohibited.[1]

The intent must be proven subjectively and objectively.[2]

  1. 2. The following devices are hereby declared to be prohibited weapons:
    ...
    (b) the device known as “Brass Knuckles” and any similar device consisting of a band of metal with finger holes designed to fit over the root knuckles of the hand.
  2. R v LBS, 1993 CanLII 8843 (SK QB), [1993] S.J. No 512, 21 WCB (2d) 279 (Q.B.), per Lawton J - case uses new definition of weapon under s.2

Knife

Where a knife is used to intimidate or threaten a person, it becomes a weapon.[1]

  1. R v MacDonald, 2002 CanLII 14251 (ON CA), 170 CCC (3d) 46, per Doherty JA, at para 28

Bear Spray

In certain courts, bear spray has been established as a weapon. It is usually necessary to have forensic expert testimony.[1]

  1. R v Meier, 2012 SKPC 41 (CanLII), 394 Sask R 204, per Morgan J at 101

Stun Gun

A stun gun or taser is a weapon that is prohibited.[1]

Such weapons generate electrical current which, when in contact with skin, creates "pain compliance."[2]

  1. e.g. R v Greening, 2013 CanLII 5319 (NL PC), per Gorman J, at para 1
    see also Electro shock weapons (wikipedia)
  2. see R v Lambert, 2011 ONSC 4740 (CanLII), [2011] OJ No 3665 (S.C.), per Kelly J, at para 24
    R v Krawcar, 2011 ONCJ 236 (CanLII), [2011] OJ No 2056 (C.J.), per Watson J, at paras 34 and 35
    R v Dhaliwal, 2007 BCSC 1936 (CanLII), [2007] BCJ No 2874 (S.C.), per Groberman J, at paras 1 to 5

Cross-Bow

Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"cross-bow" means a device with a bow and a bowstring mounted on a stock that is designed to propel an arrow, a bolt, a quarrel or any similar projectile on a trajectory guided by a barrel or groove and that is capable of causing serious bodily injury or death to a person; (arbalète)
...

R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84

Misc Items

A variety of items have been found to be a weapon in certain circumstances:

  • A broken piece of glass[1]
  • A vehicle [2]
  • Any sort of bomb[3]
  • A bottle of peanut butter that was thrown[4]
  • a bottle of beer[5]
  • a dog [6]
  • The use of a dildo in a sexual assault that causes injuries will be a weapon.[7]
  • a sewing machine pushed onto the lap of victim.[8]
  1. R v Allan, 1971 CanLII 1229 (NB CA), 4 CCC (2d) 521 (NBCA), per Bulgold JA
  2. see R v McLeod, 1993 CanLII 14674 (YK CA), 84 CCC (3d) 336, per Toy JA
    R v Lamy, 2002 SCC 25 (CanLII), [2002] 1 SCR 860, per Arbour J
  3. R v Malang, 1982 CanLII 2029 (ON CA), 65 CCC (2d) 371, per Howland CJ
  4. R v Vandergraf, 1994 CanLII 16617 (MB CA), 93 CCC (3d) 286, per Philp JA
  5. R v Richards, 1992 CanLII 2601 , per Hallett JA
  6. McLeod, supra
  7. Lamy, supra
  8. R v Hannen-Brown, 2011 ABCA 180 (CanLII), per curiam

Use of a Weapon

The "use" of a weapon can include the accused displaying a firearm in his hand to intimidate another[1] or merely displaying it.[2]

It is suggested that revealing a firearm's presence by word or deed is "use."[3]

It can also include discharging a firearm[4] or pointing a firearm.[5]

  1. R v Steele, 2007 SCC 36 (CanLII), [2007] 3 SCR 3, per Fish J, at para 27
    Rowe v The King, 1951 CanLII 7 (SCC), [1951] SCR 713, per Kerwin J, at p. 717
    R v Langevin, 1979 CanLII 2999 (ON CA), 47 CCC (2d) 138, per Martin JA, at p. 145
  2. R v Neufeld, [1984] OJ No 1747 (CA)(*no CanLII links)
  3. R v Gagnon, 1995 CanLII 1899 (ON CA), 86 OAC 381, per curiam
  4. Steele, supra, at para 27
    R v Switzer, 1987 ABCA 23 (CanLII), 32 CCC (3d) 303, per Laycraft JA
  5. Steele, supra, at para 27
    R v Griffin, 1996 CanLII 3210 , per Prowse JA

Carrying a Weapon

The meaning of "carry" is the same as it applies to s. 10(2) of the CDSA as it is to s. 85 of the Criminal Code.[1]

"Carrying" is not restricted to having the weapon on one's person but can include having the weapon within reach in a vehicle for which he has care and control.[2]


  1. R v Oickle, 2015 NSCA 87 (CanLII), 330 CCC (3d) 82, per Scanlan JA, at para 27
  2. Oickle, ibid., at para 25 - in relation to s. 10(2) of CDSA, citing cases relating to s. 85. Court states the meaning is the same
    R v Myroon, 2011 ABPC 36 (CanLII), per Allen J, at paras 52 to 60
    R v Crawford, 1980 CanLII 2889 (ON CA), 54 CCC (2d) 412 (ONCA), per Howland CJ
    R v Hanabury, 1970 CanLII 1091 (PE SCTD), (1971) 1 CCC (2d) 438 (PEISC), per Nicholson J

Prohibited Weapon

The Criminal Code distinguishes "prohibited weapons" and "restricted weapons" as subclasses of "weapons" generally. Additional weapons-related offence apply to those weapons classified as "prohibited" or "restricted".

Note that a "prohibited weapon" does not include any form of "prohibited firearm".

s. 84 (1) In this Part
...
"prohibited weapon" means

(a) a knife that has a blade that opens automatically by gravity or centrifugal force or by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in or attached to the handle of the knife, or
(b) any weapon, other than a firearm, that is prescribed to be a prohibited weapon;

...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

Before anything can be a prohibited weapon it must first be established as a weapon under s. 2.[1]

Under section 4 of the Regulations Prescribing Certain Firearms and Other Weapons, Components and Part of Weapons, Accessories, Cartridge Magazines, Ammunition and Projectiles as Prohibited or Restricted, SOR/98-462, provides:

4 The weapons listed in Part 3 of the schedule are prohibited weapons for the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition “prohibited weapon” in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code.

Reg

Part 3 of the Schedule, Prohibited Weapons, Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 8(SOR/98-462) states:

PART 3

Prohibited Weapons
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 1

1 Any device designed to be used for the purpose of injuring, immobilizing or otherwise incapacitating any person by the discharge therefrom of

(a) tear gas, Mace or other gas, or
(b) any liquid, spray, powder or other substance that is capable of injuring, immobilizing or otherwise incapacitating any person.
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 2

2 Any instrument or device commonly known as “nunchaku”, being hard non-flexible sticks, clubs, pipes, or rods linked by a length or lengths of rope, cord, wire or chain, and any similar instrument or device.

3 Any instrument or device commonly known as “shuriken”, being a hard non-flexible plate having three or more radiating points with one or more sharp edges in the shape of a polygon, trefoil, cross, star, diamond or other geometrical shape, and any similar instrument or device.

4 Any instrument or device commonly known as “manrikigusari” or “kusari”, being hexagonal or other geometrically shaped hard weights or hand grips linked by a length or lengths of rope, cord, wire or chain, and any similar instrument or device.

5 Any finger ring that has one or more blades or sharp objects that are capable of being projected from the surface of the ring.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 3

6 Any device that is designed to be capable of injuring, immobilizing or incapacitating a person or an animal by discharging an electrical charge produced by means of the amplification or accumulation of the electrical current generated by a battery, where the device is designed or altered so that the electrical charge may be discharged when the device is of a length of less than 480 mm, and any similar device.

7 A crossbow or similar device that

(a) is designed or altered to be aimed and fired by the action of one hand, whether or not it has been redesigned or subsequently altered to be aimed and fired by the action of both hands; or
(b) has a length not exceeding 500 mm.
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 4

8 The device known as the “Constant Companion”, being a belt containing a blade capable of being withdrawn from the belt, with the buckle of the belt forming a handle for the blade, and any similar device.

9 Any knife commonly known as a “push-dagger” that is designed in such a fashion that the handle is placed perpendicular to the main cutting edge of the blade and any other similar device other than the aboriginal “ulu” knife.[3]

10 Any device having a length of less than 30 cm and resembling an innocuous object but designed to conceal a knife or blade, including the device commonly known as the “knife-comb”, being a comb with the handle of the comb forming a handle for the knife, and any similar device.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 5

11 The device commonly known as a “Spiked Wristband”, being a wristband to which a spike or blade is affixed, and any similar device.[4]

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 6

12 The device commonly known as “Yaqua Blowgun”, being a tube or pipe designed for the purpose of shooting arrows or darts by the breath, and any similar device.[5]

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 7

13 The device commonly known as a “Kiyoga Baton” or “Steel Cobra” and any similar device consisting of a manually triggered telescoping spring-loaded steel whip terminated in a heavy calibre striking tip.[6]

14 The device commonly known as a “Morning Star” and any similar device consisting of a ball of metal or other heavy material, studded with spikes and connected to a handle by a length of chain, rope or other flexible material.[7]

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 8

15 The device known as “Brass Knuckles” and any similar device consisting of a band of metal with one or more finger holes designed to fit over the fingers of the hand.

Regs


Mens rea

The mens rea for offences regarding prohibited weapons, it need only be proven that either knowledge or recklessness with respect to the characteristics of the knife in question which, in fact, makes it a prohibited weapon.[2]


When involving a knife that is found to be a prohibited weapon, the crown must also establish that the accused was aware of the feature that makes it a prohibited weapon.[3]

Objective test

The test for establishing a weapon as prohibited is an objective one. The Crown does not need to prove that the possessor of the object "used or intended to use" the object as a weapon.[4]

Centrifugal Force

Proof of a weapon that can be opened by centrifugal force may be proven by way of the officer's demonstration.[5]

The imposition of centrifugal force is upon the blade not the handle.[6]

The fact that the knife was not designed to open centrifugal, but can by wear or alteration, does not prevent it from being prohibited.[7]

A butterfly knife the requires the operation of two segments of a handle while exercising centrifugal force will be a prohibited.[8]

Brass knuckles

Brass knuckles are usually considered prohibited weapons. They do not have to have holes for all fingers to be prohibited. [9]

  1. R v Murray, 1985 CanLII 3498 (ON CA), 24 CCC (3d) 568, per Blair JA - spiked wristband found as weapon
    R v Murray, 1991 CanLII 7116 (ON CA), 65 CCC (3d) 507, per curiam (“Murray #2”) - nunchaku sticks not proven as weapons
  2. R v Archer, 1983 CanLII 3510 (ON CA), 6 CCC (3d) 129 at 132, per Martin JA
  3. R v Puddy, 2011 ONCJ 399 (CanLII), OJ No 3690 (ONCJ)
  4. R v Strong, 2012 BCCA 279 (CanLII), 288 CCC (3d) 357, per Levine JA, at para 35
  5. R v Wlodkowski, 2007 ONCA 167 (CanLII), per curiam
  6. R v Richard, 1981 CanLII 3163 (NB CA), 63 CCC (2d) 333, per Limerick JA
  7. Richard, ibid. ("Similarly a knife may be a "prohibited weapon" even though it was not designed to be used as such if in fact its blade, through wear or alteration, can be fully opened for use by applying centrifugal force or gravity to the blade or by applying pressure to a button spring or device in or attached to the handle. In other words, it is the capability and not the design of the knife which determines whether or not it is a "prohibitive weapon"")
  8. R v Vaughan, 1990 CanLII 3059 (QC CA), 60 CCC (3d) 87, per Beauregard JA
  9. R v Montgomery, 2009 ABCA 197 (CanLII), [2009] AJ No 559, per Costigan JA

Restricted Weapon

s. 84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"restricted weapon" means any weapon, other than a firearm, that is prescribed to be a restricted weapon;
...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84

Photographs of Weapons

"butterfly knife" (prohibited weapon)
"brass knuckles" (prohibited weapon)
"bear spray"/"mace"
crossbow
spiked wristband
spring-loaded baton
"push dagger"
taser

Legislative History

Protection of Communities and Exploited Persons Act, SC 2014, c 25 modified the definition by adding the following after para (b):

"and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a firearm and, for the purposes of sections 88, 267 and 272, any thing used, designed to be used or intended for use in binding or tying up a person against their will;"

From December 1, 1998 to 2014, the definition of "weapon" read:

"Weapon" means any thing used, designed to be used or intended for use

(a) in causing death or injury to any person, or
(b) for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person

and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a firearm.

From August 1, 1992 to December 1, 1998, the definition of "weapon" read:

"Weapon" means

(a) anything used, designed to be used or intended for use in causing death or injury to any person, or
(b) anything used, designed to be used or intended for use for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person

and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes any firearm as defined in Subsection 84(1).

Between December 4, 1985 and August 1, 1992[1], the definition of "weapon" read:

Weapon means

(a) anything used or intended for use in causing death or injury to persons whether designed for such purpose or not, or
(b) anything used or intended for use for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person,

and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes any firearm as defined in section 84.

Prior to 1985, the definition of "weapon" and "offensive weapon" read:

2
...
"Offensive weapon" or "weapon" means

(a) anything that is designed to be used as a weapon, or
(b) anything that a person uses or intends to use as a weapon, whether or not it is designed to be used as a weapon,

and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes any firearm as defined in section 82. ...

Criminal Code, 1906

2
...
"offensive weapon" or "weapon" includes any gun or other firearm, or airgun, or any part thereof, or any sword, sword blade, bayonet, pike, pike-head, spear, spearhead, dirk, dagger, knife, or other instrument intended for cutting or stabbing, or any metal knuckles, or other deadly or dangerous weapon, and any instrument or thing intended to be used as a weapon, and all ammunition which may be used with or for any weapon;
...

  1. As amended by SC 1991, c 40
    See List of Criminal Code Amendments (1984 to 1999)

Criminal Code, 1892

s. 3...
The expression "offensive weapon" includes any gun or other firearm, or airgun, or any part thereof, or any sword, sword blade, bayonet, pick, pike-head, spear, spear-head, dirk, dagger, knife, or other instrument intended for cutting or stabbing, or any metal knuckles, or other deadly or dangerous weapon, and any instrument or thing intended to be used as a weapon, and all ammunition which may be used with or for any weapon;

See Also

Definition of Firearms

General Principles

See also: Definition of Weapons

Firearms are a type of weapon. They are designed to kill or wound and so are less likely to have legitimate purposes. Thus, unlike knives and clubs which do have more varied purposes, firearms are always considered weapons.[1]

Section s. 2 defines "firearm":

Definitions

2 In this Act,
...
"Firearm" means a barrelled weapon from which any shot, bullet or other projectile can be discharged and that is capable of causing serious bodily injury or death to a person, and includes any frame or receiver of such a barrelled weapon and anything that can be adapted for use as a firearm;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

A "firearm" under s. 2 is also subdivided into different classifications within s. 84 which includes categories of non-restricted, restricted, or prohibited firearms (see below).

This definition of "firearm" was introduced by amendment 1995, c. 39. Prior to that amendment the term was not defined in the Code.

Further definitions — firearms

2.1 In this Act, "ammunition", "antique firearm", "automatic firearm", "cartridge magazine", "cross-bow", "handgun", "imitation firearm", "prohibited ammunition", "prohibited device", "prohibited firearm", "prohibited weapon", "replica firearm", "restricted firearm" and "restricted weapon", as well as "authorization", "licence" and "registration certificate" when used in relation to those words and expressions, have the same meaning as in subsection 84(1) [firearms and other weapons — definitions].
2009, c. 22, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2.1

A firearm can include many types of barreled weapons. It is not significant to the defintion whether there is ammunition available or not.[2]

All Firearms are Weapons

All firearms are weapons regardless of the intention of the holder.[3]

Operability

Under s. 2, the device must be "operable" and "capable of causing bodily harm" for it to meet the formal definition of "firearm."[4]

However, a device that otherwise meets the definition of "firearm" cannot be excluded from the definition merely because it is inoperable or disrepair, but is capable of being "easily repaired."[5]

Classes of Guns

Generally speaking, firearms can be classified into two types:

  • Long Guns (rifles, carbines, and shotguns) and
  • Handguns (revolvers, pistols)
Hand Guns

A handgun is defined under s. 84(1):

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)]
...
"handgun" means a firearm that is designed, altered or intended to be aimed and fired by the action of one hand, whether or not it has been redesigned or subsequently altered to be aimed and fired by the action of both hands;
...
[omitted (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

  1. R v Felawka, 1993 CanLII 36 (SCC), [1993] 4 SCR 199, per Cory J (“A firearm is expressly designed to kill or wound. It operates with deadly efficiency in carrying out the object of its design...A firearm is quite different from an object such as a carving knife or an ice pick which will normally be used for legitimate purposes. A firearm, however, is always a weapon. No matter what the intention may be of the person carrying a gun, the firearm itself presents the ultimate threat of death to those in its presence.”) See also: R v Formosa, 1992 CanLII 12828 (ON CA), 79 CCC (3d) 95, per curiam
  2. R v Covin, 1983 CanLII 151 (SCC), [1983] 1 SCR 725, per Lamer J, at p. 728
    R v Cheetham, 1980 CanLII 2978 (ON CA), 53 CCC (2d) 109, per Blair JA (2:1) - unloaded rifle was a firearm
  3. Felawka, supra ("A firearm, however, is always a weapon. No matter what the intention may be of the person carrying a gun, the firearm itself presents the ultimate threat of death to those in its presence.")
  4. Covin, supra
  5. R v Cairns, 1962 CanLII 579 (BC CA), 2 CCC 274, per Wilson JA(complete citation pending)

Firearm Action

The "action" of the firearm refers to the component of the firearm hand handles the cartridges, including the discharge of the bullet from the cartridge.

Firearms can have:

  • Single vs. Double Action (e.g. revolvers)
  • Pump action (e.g. Shotguns)
  • Break action (e.g. Shotguns)
  • Lever action (e.g. Shotguns, Rifles)
  • Bolt action (e.g. Rifles)
From Wikipedia

Section 84(1) states:

Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)]
...
"automatic firearm" means a firearm that is capable of, or assembled or designed and manufactured with the capability of, discharging projectiles in rapid succession during one pressure of the trigger;
...
"semi-automatic", in respect of a firearm, means that the firearm that is equipped with a mechanism that, following the discharge of a cartridge, automatically operates to complete any part of the reloading cycle necessary to prepare for the discharge of the next cartridge; (semi-automatique)

[omitted (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18; 2019, c. 9, s. 16; 2022, c. 15, s. 1; 2023, c. 32, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

Section 1 of the Regulations, SOR/98 98-462 462 states:

“Semi-Automatic Automatic”: a firearm that is equipped with a mechanism that, following the discharge of the cartridge, automatically operates to complete any part of the reloading cycle necessary to prepare for the discharge of the next cartridge

Regs

Certain weapons can be adapted to be both semi-automatic and fully automatic.

Firearm Classifications

"Prohibited device" and "ammunition"

Use of a Firearm

The use of a firearm must be more than mere possession and can be less than discharging it.

Use has been found to include:[1]

  • striking a person with it
  • pointing the firearm at a person
  • holding it to intimidate
  • brandishing the firearm

It is not used where the accused merely holds the weapon, makes a threatening reference to the firearm, close accessibility to a firearm with an intent to use it.[2]

Note that a party to a principle who is "using" a firearm can be considered a "user" of the firearm as well.[3]

  1. R v Cheetham, 1980 CanLII 2978 (ON CA), 53 CCC (2d) 109 (ONCA), per Blair JA (2:1)
    R v Langevin, 1979 CanLII 2999 (ON CA), (No.1) (1979), 47 CCC (2d) 138 (ONCA), per Martin JA
    R v Stewart, 2010 BCCA 153 (CanLII), 285 BCAC 144, per Frankel JA
    R v Steele, 2007 SCC 36 (CanLII), 221 CCC (3d) 14, per Fish J
  2. Steele, ibid., at para 32 ( use occurs where "the offender reveals by words or conduct the actual presence or immediate availability of a firearm. The weapon must then be in a physical possession of the offender or readily at hand.")
  3. See R v McGuigan, 1982 CanLII 41 (SCC), 66 CCC (2d) 97, per Dickson J

Evidence Issues

Regulations

Regulations

117.15 (1) Subject to subsection (2) [power to make regulations – restrictions], the Governor in Council may make regulations prescribing anything that by this Part is to be or may be prescribed.

Restriction

(2) In making regulations, the Governor in Council may not prescribe any thing to be a prohibited firearm, a restricted firearm, a prohibited weapon, a restricted weapon, a prohibited device or prohibited ammunition if, in the opinion of the Governor in Council, the thing to be prescribed is reasonable for use in Canada for hunting or sporting purposes.
(3) [Repealed, 2019, c. 9, s. 18]

(4) [Repealed, 2019, c. 9, s. 18]
1995, c. 39, s. 139; 2015, c. 27, s. 34; 2019, c. 9, s. 18.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 117.15(1), (2), (3), and (4)

Misc Firearms Related Terms

Interpretation
Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"export" means export from Canada and, for greater certainty, includes the exportation of goods from Canada that are imported into Canada and shipped in transit through Canada; (exporter)
"firearms officer" means a firearms officer as defined in subsection 2(1) of the Firearms Act; (préposé aux armes à feu)
...
"imitation firearm" means any thing that imitates a firearm, and includes a replica firearm; (fausse arme à feu)
"import" means import into Canada and, for greater certainty, includes the importation of goods into Canada that are shipped in transit through Canada and exported from Canada; (importer)
"licence" means a licence issued under the Firearms Act; (permis)
...
"prescribed" means prescribed by the regulations; (Version anglaise seulement)
...
"Registrar" means the Registrar of Firearms appointed under section 82 of the Firearms Act; (directeur)
"registration certificate" means a registration certificate issued under the Firearms Act; (certificat d’enregistrement)
...
"transfer" means sell, provide, barter, give, lend, rent, send, transport, ship, distribute or deliver. (cession)
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

See Also

Non-Restricted and Other Types of Firearms

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed October 2023. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Definition of Firearms, Definition of Restricted Firearms, and Definition of Prohibited Firearms

All rifles and shotguns that do not otherwise fit in the definition of restricted or prohibited firearms is a "non-restricted firearm".

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
non-restricted firearm means a firearm that is neither a prohibited firearm nor a restricted firearm;  ...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18; 2019, c. 9, s. 16; 2022, c. 15, s. 1; 2023, c. 32, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

This category will generally capture many sports rifles and shotguns.

Prescribed Non-Restricted Firearms

3.2 The firearms listed in Part 2.1 of the schedule that have a barrel that is at least 470 mm in length, and the firearms listed in items 1, 2, 5, 8 and 11 to 15 of that Part that do not have a barrel, are non-restricted firearms for the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition non-restricted firearm in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code, except for those firearms that

(a) discharge projectiles in rapid succession during one pressure of the trigger; or
(b) are prohibited firearms within the meaning of paragraph (b) of the definition prohibited firearm in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code.

SOR/2015-213, s. 2.

PART 2.1
Firearms for the Purposes of Sections 3.1 and 3.2

1 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-2P rifle

2 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-2V rifle

3 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-4P rifle

4 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-4V rifle

5 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green rifle

6 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green carbine

7 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green CQB rifle

8 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special rifle

9 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special carbine

10 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special CQB rifle

11 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special Target rifle

12 SAN Swiss Arms Model Blue Star rifle

13 SAN Swiss Arms Model Heavy Metal rifle

14 SAN Swiss Arms Model Red Devil rifle

15 SAN Swiss Arms Model Swiss Arms Edition rifle

Antique Firearms

Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"antique firearm" means

(a) any firearm manufactured before 1898 that was not designed to discharge rim-fire or centre-fire ammunition and that has not been redesigned to discharge such ammunition, or
(b) any firearm that is prescribed to be an antique firearm;

...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

The Regulations Prescribing Antique Firearms, SOR/98-464, that came into force on December 1, 1998, further defines antique firearm as follows:

BLACK POWDER REPRODUCTIONS

1. A reproduction of a flintlock, wheel-lock or matchlock firearm, other than a handgun, manufactured after 1897.

RIFLES

2. A rifle manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging only rim-fire cartridges, other than 22 Calibre Short, 22 Calibre Long or 22 Calibre Long Rifle cartridges.
3. A rifle manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging centre-fire cartridges, whether with a smooth or rifled bore, having a bore diameter of 8.3 mm or greater, measured from land to land in the case of a rifled bore, with the exception of a repeating firearm fed by any type of cartridge magazine.

SHOTGUNS

4. A shotgun manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging only rim-fire cartridges, other than 22 Calibre Short, 22 Calibre Long or 22 Calibre Long Rifle cartridges.
5. A shotgun manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging centre-fire cartridges, other than 10, 12, 16, 20, 28 or 410 gauge cartridges.

HANDGUNS

6. A handgun manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging only rim-fire cartridges, other than 22 Calibre Short, 22 Calibre Long or 22 Calibre Long Rifle cartridges.
7. A handgun manufactured before 1898 that is capable of discharging centre-fire cartridges, other than a handgun designed or adapted to discharge 32 Short Colt, 32 Long Colt, 32 Smith and Wesson, 32 Smith and Wesson Long, 32-20 Winchester, 38 Smith and Wesson, 38 Short Colt, 38 Long Colt, 38-40 Winchester, 44-40 Winchester, or 45 Colt cartridges.

Regs

Inoperable Firearms

An inoperable firearm will be a "Firearm" within the meaning of s.2, if it is capable of being made operable. The Crown holds the burden of establishing that an inoperable firearm is capable of operation through fixing or assembling.[1]

An inoperable weapon otherwise fitting the definition of firearm can be a firearm if it can be fixed into operating order in a relatively short period of time and with relative ease.[2] Likewise, if there is at least some evidence indicating or inferring that the alleged firearm, because of a defect or inadequacy, is incapable of being fired, then it is not a firearm.[3]

A firearm does not cease to meet the definition merely by being in a state of disrepair or disassembly such that it can be easily repaired.[4]

An air gun will generally be classified as a firearm.[5]

However, an inoperable air pistol is not a firearm as it is incapable of causing serious bodily harm.[6]

The use of an inoperable firearm during the commission of an offence such as during a robbery may still be a "firearm."[7]

  1. R v Dufour, 1982 CanLII 3903 (NSCA), 3 CCC (3d) 14, [1982] NSJ No 549 (NSCA), per Pace JA
  2. R v Sinclair, 2005 ABCA 443 (CanLII), 207 CCC (3d) 80, per curiam
    R v Covin, 1983 CanLII 151 (SCC), [1983] 1 SCR 725, per Lamer J
    Dufour, supra
    R v Belair, 1981 CanLII 1625 (ON CA), 24 CR (3d) 133, [1981] OJ No 3129, per Martin JA
  3. R v Marchesani, 1969 CanLII 264 (ONSC), [1970] 1 CCC 350 (O.H.C.), per Hartt J
  4. R v Cairns, 1962 CanLII 579 (BCCA), (1962), 39 CR 154, [1962] BCJ No 87 (BCCA), per Wilson JA
  5. R v Dunn, 2013 ONCA 539 (CanLII), 305 CCC (3d) 372, per Rosenberg JA, upheld at 2014 SCC 69 (CanLII), per McLachlin CJ overturning R v McManus and R v Labrecque
    R v Felawka, 1993 CanLII 36 (SCC), [1993] 4 SCR 199, per Cory J, at paras 11 to 14
  6. Covin, supra
  7. Belair, supra

Make-shift Firearms

Whether something can be adapted for use as a firearm depends on the amount, nature and time spent adapting the device.[1]

  1. R v Covin, 1983 CanLII 151 (SCC), [1983] 1 SCR 725, per Lamer J

Imitation and Replica Firearms

See also: Use of Firearm in Commission of an Offence (Offence)

An "imitation firearm" is defined in s. 84:

Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"imitation firearm" means any thing that imitates a firearm, and includes a replica firearm; (fausse arme à feu)
...
"replica firearm" means any device that is designed or intended to exactly resemble, or to resemble with near precision, a firearm that is designed or adapted to discharge a shot, bullet or other projectile at a muzzle velocity exceeding 152.4 m per second and at a muzzle energy exceeding 5.7 Joules, and that itself is not a firearm, but does not include any such device that is designed or intended to exactly resemble, or to resemble with near precision, an antique firearm; (réplique) ...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18; 2019, c. 9, s. 16; 2022, c. 15, s. 1; 2023, c. 32, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

Meaning of "imitates"

An object that is found to "resemble" a firearm will be an "imitation firearm."[1]

Types of Weapons

A real firearm can also meet the definition of imitation firearm.[2]

Pellet Guns and Paint Guns

Certain devices such as pellet guns can be found to be a firearm where it is "used or intended to be used for a dangerous purpose."[3] The prove that a pellet gun is a firearm, the Crown will usually tender expert evidence who has test-fired the device and measure muzzle velocity.[4]

A starting pistol is an "imitation firearm."[5]

Prohibited Device

A "prohibited device" refers to "(e) a replica firearm;"(s. 84)

"Toy" guns

A BB gun may not be a firearm only unless it has been established that it is "capable of causing serious bodily harm or death."[6] It may be a weapon where it is "used or intended to be used for a dangerous purpose."[7]

A paint-gun has been considered a "firearm."[8]

  1. R v Taing, 1998 ABCA 108 (CanLII), [1998] AJ No 377, per curiam ("On the evidence, the only conclusion open to the trial judge was a finding that it resembled a firearm. To resemble something is to be an imitation of it.")
  2. R v Scott, 2000 BCCA 220 (CanLII), 145 CCC (3d) 52, per Braidwood JA, affd 2001 SCC 73 (CanLII), [2001] 3 SCR 425 (SCC), per McLachlin CJ, at para 45 ("Therefore, to avoid absurdities in firearms cases, and interpret s. 85(2) in harmony with the intention of Parliament, the term “imitation firearm” must include real firearms")
  3. R v Labrecque, 2010 ONSC 754 (CanLII), per Rutherford J appeal denied at 2011 ONCA 360 (CanLII), per curiam
    see also R v McManus, 2006 CanLII 26568 (ON CA), [2006] OJ No 3175 (CA), per curiam
    Contra: Covin, supra
  4. R v Eyre, 2019 BCCA 333 (CanLII), per Frankel JA, at para 30 ("To prove a particular pellet gun is a firearm the Crown will often tender evidence from an expert who test-fired that gun to establish that it has a muzzle velocity sufficient to cause serious bodily injury or death")
    R v Goard, 2014 ONSC 2215 (CanLII), 310 CCC (3d) 491, per Trotter J, at paras 45 to 48
    R v Wainwright, 2016 ONSC 1963 (CanLII), per Roccamo J, at para 13
    R v Crawford, 2015 ABCA 175 (CanLII), 322 CCC (3d) 528, per Martin JA, at para 24
  5. R v Boutilier, [1974] 4 WWR 443(*no CanLII links)
  6. R v Seyed-Nabian, 2008 ABPC 219 (CanLII), 451 AR 310, per Ogle J, at paras 30 to 35
    R v James, 2011 ONCJ 125 (CanLII), per Duncan J
  7. R v Labrecque, 2011 ONCA 360 (CanLII), per curiam
  8. R v RHS, 2007 ONCA 311 (CanLII), per curiam

Exempt Firearms

84
[omitted (1) and (2)]

Certain weapons deemed not to be firearms

(3) For the purposes of sections 91 to 95 [firearm posssession offences], 99 to 101 [weapons trafficking offences], 103 to 107 [offences relating to transport and modifying firearms] and 117.03 [seizure, return and forfeiture on failure to produce authorization] of this Act and the provisions of the Firearms Act, the following weapons are deemed not to be firearms:

(a) any antique firearm;
(b) any device that is
(i) designed exclusively for signalling, for notifying of distress, for firing blank cartridges or for firing stud cartridges, explosive-driven rivets or other industrial projectiles, and
(ii) intended by the person in possession of it to be used exclusively for the purpose for which it is designed;
(c) any shooting device that is
(i) designed exclusively for the slaughtering of domestic animals, the tranquillizing of animals or the discharging of projectiles with lines attached to them, and
(ii) intended by the person in possession of it to be used exclusively for the purpose for which it is designed; and
(d) any other barrelled weapon, where it is proved that the weapon is not designed or adapted to discharge
(i) a shot, bullet or other projectile at a muzzle velocity exceeding 152.4 m per second or at a muzzle energy exceeding 5.7 Joules, or
(ii) a shot, bullet or other projectile that is designed or adapted to attain a velocity exceeding 152.4 m per second or an energy exceeding 5.7 Joules.
Exception — antique firearms

(3.1) Notwithstanding subsection (3) , an antique firearm is a firearm for the purposes of regulations made under paragraph 117(h) of the Firearms Act and subsection 86(2) [contravention of storage regulations, etc.] of this Act.
[omitted (4), (5) and (6)]

[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(3) and (3.1)

Definition of Restricted Firearms

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2019. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Definition of Firearms, Definition of Prohibited Firearms, and Non-Restricted and Other Types of Firearms
Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"restricted firearm" means

(a) a handgun that is not a prohibited firearm,
(b) a firearm that
(i) is not a prohibited firearm,
(ii) has a barrel less than 470 mm in length, and
(iii) is capable of discharging centre-fire ammunition in a semi-automatic manner,
(c) a firearm that is designed or adapted to be fired when reduced to a length of less than 660 mm by folding, telescoping or otherwise, or
(d) a firearm of any other kind that is prescribed to be a restricted firearm;

"restricted weapon" means any weapon, other than a firearm, that is prescribed to be a restricted weapon;
...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)


Defined terms: "ammunition" (s. 84(1))


Regulations state:

3 The firearms listed in Part 2 of the schedule are restricted firearms for the purposes of paragraph (d) of the definition restricted firearm in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code, except for those firearms that are prohibited firearms within the meaning of paragraph (b) or (c) of the definition prohibited firearm in that subsection.

SOR/2015-213, s. 2.

Regs

3.1 The firearms listed in Part 2.1 of the schedule that have a barrel that is less than 470 mm in length, and firearms listed in items 3, 4, 6, 7, 9 and 10 of that Part that do not have a barrel, are restricted firearms for the purposes of paragraph (d) of the definition restricted firearm in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code, except for those firearms that

(a) discharge projectiles in rapid succession during one pressure of the trigger; or
(b) are prohibited firearms within the meaning of paragraph (b) of the definition prohibited firearm in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code.

SOR/2015-213, s. 2.

Regs

PART 2
Restricted Firearms
Former Restricted Weapons Order

1 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the High Standard Model 10, Series A shotgun and the High Standard Model 10, Series B shotgun, and any variants or modified versions of them.
2 The firearm of the design commonly known as the M-16 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) Colt AR-15;[8]
(b) Colt AR-15 SPI;
(c) Colt AR-15 Sporter;
(d) Colt AR-15 Collapsible Stock Model;
(e) Colt AR-15 A2;
(f) Colt AR-15 A2 Carbine;
(g) Colt AR-15 A2 Government Model Rifle;
(h) Colt AR-15 A2 Government Model Target Rifle;
(i) Colt AR-15 A2 Government Model Carbine;
(j) Colt AR-15 A2 Sporter II;
(k) Colt AR-15 A2 H-BAR;
(l) Colt AR-15 A2 Delta H-BAR;
(m) Colt AR-15 A2 Delta H-BAR Match;
(n) Colt AR-15 9mm Carbine;
(o) Armalite AR-15;[9]
(p) AAI M15;
(q) AP74;
(r) EAC J-15;
(s) PWA Commando;
(t) SGW XM15A;
(u) SGW CAR-AR;
(v) SWD AR-15; and
(w) any 22-calibre rimfire variant, including the
(i) Mitchell M-16A-1/22,
(ii) Mitchell M-16/22,
(iii) Mitchell CAR-15/22, and
(iv) AP74 Auto Rifle.

...
SOR/2015-213, s. 3.

Regs

PART 2.1
Firearms for the Purposes of Sections 3.1 and 3.2

1 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-2P rifle

2 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-2V rifle

3 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-4P rifle

4 Ceská Zbrojovka (CZ) Model CZ858 Tactical-4V rifle

5 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green rifle

6 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green carbine

7 SAN Swiss Arms Model Classic Green CQB rifle

8 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special rifle

9 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special carbine

10 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special CQB rifle

11 SAN Swiss Arms Model Black Special Target rifle

12 SAN Swiss Arms Model Blue Star rifle

13 SAN Swiss Arms Model Heavy Metal rifle

14 SAN Swiss Arms Model Red Devil rifle

15 SAN Swiss Arms Model Swiss Arms Edition rifle

Barrel Length

Photographs

M-16 and variants [restricted firearm]
AR-15 [restricted firearm]

Definition of Prohibited Firearms

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2024. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Definition of Firearms and Definition of Restricted Firearms
Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"prohibited firearm" means

(a) a handgun that
(i) has a barrel equal to or less than 105 mm in length, or
(ii) is designed or adapted to discharge a 25 or 32 calibre cartridge,

but does not include any such handgun that is prescribed, where the handgun is for use in international sporting competitions governed by the rules of the International Shooting Union,

(b) a firearm that is adapted from a rifle or shotgun, whether by sawing, cutting or any other alteration, and that, as so adapted,
(i) is less than 660 mm in length, or
(ii) is 660 mm or greater in length and has a barrel less than 457 mm in length,
(c) an automatic firearm, whether or not it has been altered to discharge only one projectile with one pressure of the trigger, or
(d) any firearm that is prescribed to be a prohibited firearm, or
(e) any unlawfully manufactured firearm regardless of the means or method of manufacture;
(e) [sic] a firearm that is not a handgun and that
(i) discharges centre-fire ammunition in a semi-automatic manner,
(ii) was originally designed with a detachable cartridge magazine with a capacity of six cartridges or more, and
(iii) is designed and manufactured on or after the day on which this paragraph comes into force;

any firearm that is prescribed to be a ...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18; 2023, c. 32, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

As described in s. 84, prohibited weapons consist of:

  1. handgun with a barrel length of 105 mm or less;
  2. handgun designed or adapted to discharge 25 or 32 calibre ammunition;
  3. rifle or shotgun that has been altered to make it less than 660 mm (26 inches) in overall length;
  4. rifle or shotgun that has been altered to make the barrel length less than 457 mm (18 inches) where the overall firearm length is 660 mm (26 inches) or more;
  5. automatic firearm or converted automatic firearm; or
  6. any firearm prescribed as prohibited.

Barrel Length

Measuring Barrel

84
...

Barrel length

(2) For the purposes of this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)], the length of a barrel of a firearm is

(a) in the case of a revolver, the distance from the muzzle of the barrel to the breach end immediately in front of the cylinder, and
(b) in any other case, the distance from the muzzle of the barrel to and including the chamber,

but does not include the length of any component, part or accessory including any component, part or accessory designed or intended to suppress the muzzle flash or reduce recoil. [omitted (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(2)

Handguns

All non-revolving handguns are prohibited which have "a barrel equal to or less than 105 mm [~4.1 inches] in length" or any handgun capable of firing 25 or 32 calibre bullets.

Glock G22, Glock G21, Kimber Custom Raptor, Dan Wesson Commander, Smith & Wesson .357, Ruger Blackhawk .357, Ruger SP101, Sig Sauer P220 Combat.
Handgun length requirements


Rifle or Shotgun Barrel Length

As stated in 84(1), any rifle or shotgun with dimensions of being:

  1. "is less than 660 mm in length, or"
  2. "is 660 mm or greater in length and has a barrel less than 457 mm in length"


Rifle and shotgun length requirements

Length does not take into account any muzzle attachment such as a suppressor or silencer.

Ammunition Caliber

All non-revolving handguns are prohibited which have "a barrel equal to or less than 105 mm [~4.1 inches] in length" or any handgun capable of firing 25 or 32 calibre bullets.

Glock G22, Glock G21, Kimber Custom Raptor, Dan Wesson Commander, Smith & Wesson .357, Ruger Blackhawk .357, Ruger SP101, Sig Sauer P220 Combat.
25 calibre bullet [1]
32 calibre bullet [2]

Automatic Firing Mechanism

As defined in s. 84(1) any firearm that is "an automatic firearm" is prohibited. This includes firearms that "has been altered to discharge only one projectile with one pressure of the trigger".

Prescribed Firearms

The regulations prescribe certain firearms as restricted stating:

2 The firearms listed in Part 1 of the schedule are prohibited firearms for the purposes of paragraph (d) of the definition “prohibited firearm” in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code.

The prescribed prohibited firearms are:

PART 1
Prohibited Firearms
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 3

1 Any firearm capable of discharging a dart or other object carrying an electrical current or substance, including the firearm of the design commonly known as the Taser Public Defender[10] and any variant or modified version of it.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 8

2 The firearm known as the SSS-1 Stinger and any similar firearm designed or of a size to fit in the palm of the hand.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 11

3 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Franchi SPAS 12 shotgun[11], and any variant or modified version of it, including the Franchi LAW 12 shotgun.

4 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Striker shotgun, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Striker 12 shotgun and the Streetsweeper shotgun.

5 The firearm of the design commonly known as the USAS-12 Auto Shotgun, and any variant or modified version of it.

6 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Franchi SPAS-15 shotgun[12], and any variant or modified version of it.

7 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Benelli M1 Super 90 shotgun [13] and the Benelli M3 Super 90 shotgun, and any variants or modified versions of them, with the exception of the

(a) M1 Super 90 Field;
(b) M1 Super 90 Sporting Special;
(c) Montefeltro Super 90;
(d) Montefeltro Super 90 Standard Hunter;
(e) Montefeltro Super 90 Left Hand;
(f) Montefeltro Super 90 Turkey;
(g) Montefeltro Super 90 Uplander;
(h) Montefeltro Super 90 Slug;
(i) Montefeltro Super 90 20 Gauge;
(j) Black Eagle;
(k) Black Eagle Limited Edition;
(l) Black Eagle Competition;
(m) Black Eagle Slug Gun;
(n) Super Black Eagle; and
(o) Super Black Eagle Custom Slug.

8 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Bernardelli B4 shotgun and the Bernardelli B4/B shotgun, and any variants or modified versions of them.

9 The firearm of the design commonly known as the American 180 Auto Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it, including the AM-180 Auto Carbine and the Illinois Arms Company Model 180 Auto Carbine.

10 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Barrett “Light Fifty” Model 82A1 rifle[14] and the Barrett Model 90 rifle, and any variants or modified versions of them.

11 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Calico M-900 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the M-951 carbine, M-100 carbine and M-105 carbine.

12 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Iver Johnson AMAC long-range rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

13 The firearm of the design commonly known as the McMillan M87 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the McMillan M87R rifle and the McMillan M88 carbine.

14 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Pauza Specialties P50 rifle and P50 carbine, and any variants or modified versions of them.

15 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Encom MK-IV carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

16 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Encom MP-9 and MP-45 carbines, and any variants or modified versions of them.

17 The firearm of the design commonly known as the FAMAS rifle[15], and any variant or modified version of it, including the MAS 223, FAMAS Export, FAMAS Civil and Mitchell MAS/22.

18 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Feather AT-9 Semi-Auto Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Feather AT-22 Auto Carbine.

19 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Federal XC-450 Auto Rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Federal XC-900 rifle and Federal XC-220 rifle.

20 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Gepard long-range sniper rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

21 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Heckler and Koch (HK) Model G11 rifle[16], and any variant or modified version of it.

22 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Research Armament Industries (RAI) Model 500 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

23 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Spectre Auto Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

24 The firearm of the design commonly known as the US Arms PMAI “Assault” 22 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

25 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Weaver Arms Nighthawk Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

26 The firearm of the design commonly known as the A.A. Arms AR9 Semi-Automatic Rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

27 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Claridge HI-TEC C, LEC-9 and ZLEC-9 carbines, and any variants or modified versions of them.

28 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Kimel Industries AR-9 rifle or carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

29 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Grendel R-31 Auto Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

30 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Maadi Griffin Rifle and the Maadi Griffin Carbine, and any variants or modified versions of them.

31 The firearm of the design commonly known as the AA Arms Model AR-9 carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

32 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Bushmaster Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

33 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Calico M-950 Auto Pistol[17], and any variant or modified version of it, including the M-110 pistol.

34 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Encom MK-IV assault pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

35 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Encom MP-9 and MP-45 assault pistols, and any variants or modified versions of them, including the Encom MP-9 and MP-45 mini pistols.

36 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Federal XP-450 Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the XP-900 Auto Pistol.

37 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Heckler and Koch (HK) SP89 Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

38 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Intratec Tec-9 Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Tec-9S, Tec-9M, Tec-9MS, and any semi-automatic variants of them, including the Tec-DC9, Tec-DC9M, Tec-9A, Tec-Scorpion, Tec-22T and Tec-22TN.

39 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Iver Johnson Enforcer Model 3000 Auto Pistol and the Iver Johnson Plainfield Super Enforcer Carbine, and any variants or modified versions of them.

40 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Skorpion Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

41 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Spectre Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

42 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Sterling Mk 7 pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Sterling Mk 7 C4 and Sterling Mk 7 C8.

43 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Universal Enforcer Model 3000 Auto Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Universal Enforcer Model 3010N, Model 3015G, Model 3020TRB and Model 3025TCO Carbines.

44 The firearm of the design commonly known as the US Arms PMAIP “Assault” 22 pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

45 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Goncz High-Tech Long Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Claridge Hi-Tec models S, L, T, ZL-9 and ZT-9 pistols.

46 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Leader Mark 5 Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

47 The firearm of the design commonly known as the OA-93 assault pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

48 The firearm of the design commonly known as the A.A. Arms AP9 Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

49 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Patriot pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

50 The firearm of the design commonly known as the XM 231S pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the A1, A2 and A3 Flattop pistols.

51 The firearm of the design commonly known as the AA Arms Model AP-9 pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Target AP-9 and the Mini AP-9 pistols.

52 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Kimel Industries AP-9 pistol[18], and any variant or modified version of it.

53 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Grendel P-30[19], P-30 M, P-30 L and P-31 pistols, and any variants or modified versions of them.

54 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Claridge HI-TEC ZL-9, HI-TEC S, HI-TEC L, HI-TEC T, HI-TEC ZT-9 and HI-TEC ZL-9 pistols[20], and any variants or modified versions of them.

55 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Steyr SPP Assault Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

56 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Maadi Griffin Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

57 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Interdynamics KG-99 Assault Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 12

58 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Sterling Mk 6 Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

59 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Steyr AUG rifle[21], and any variant or modified version of it.

60 The firearm of the design commonly known as the UZI carbine[22], and any variant or modified version of it, including the UZI Model A carbine and the Mini-UZI carbine.

61 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the Ingram M10 and M11 pistols, and any variants or modified versions of them, including the Cobray M10 and M11 pistols, the RPB M10, M11, SM10 and SM11 pistols and the SWD M10, M11, SM10 and SM11 pistols.

62 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Partisan Avenger Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it.

63 The firearm of the design commonly known as the UZI pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Micro-UZI pistol.

Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 13

64 The firearm of the design commonly known as the AK-47 rifle[23], and any variant or modified version of it except for the Valmet Hunter, the Valmet Hunter Auto and the Valmet M78 rifles, but including the

(a) AK-74;
(b) AK Hunter;
(c) AKM;
(d) AKM-63;[24]
(e) AKS-56S;
(f) AKS-56S-1;
(g) AKS-56S-2;
(h) AKS-74;[25]
(i) AKS-84S-1;
(j) AMD-65;[26]
(k) AR Model .223;
(l) Dragunov;[27]
(m) Galil;[28]
(n) KKMPi69;
(o) M60;
(p) M62;
(q) M70B1;
(r) M70AB2;
(s) M76;
(t) M77B1;[29]
(u) M78;
(v) M80;[30]
(w) M80A;[31]
(x) MAK90;[32]
(y) MPiK;
(z) MPiKM;
(z.1) MPiKMS-72;
(z.2) MPiKS;
(z.3) PKM;
(z.4) PKM-DGN-60;
(z.5) PMKM;
(z.6) RPK;
(z.7) RPK-74;
(z.8) RPK-87S;
(z.9) Type 56;
(z.10) Type 56-1;
(z.11) Type 56-2;
(z.12) Type 56-3;
(z.13) Type 56-4;
(z.14) Type 68;
(z.15) Type 79;
(z.16) American Arms AKY39;
(z.17) American Arms AKF39;
(z.18) American Arms AKC47;
(z.19) American Arms AKF47;
(z.20) MAM70WS762;
(z.21) MAM70FS762;
(z.22) Mitchell AK-22;
(z.23) Mitchell AK-47;
(z.24) Mitchell Heavy Barrel AK-47;
(z.25) Norinco 84S;
(z.26) Norinco 84S AK;
(z.27) Norinco 56;
(z.28) Norinco 56-1;
(z.29) Norinco 56-2;
(z.30) Norinco 56-3;
(z.31) Norinco 56-4;
(z.32) Poly Technologies Inc AK-47/S;
(z.33) Poly Technologies Inc AKS-47/S;
(z.34) Poly Technologies Inc AKS-762;
(z.35) Valmet M76;[33]
(z.36) Valmet M76 carbine;[34]
(z.37) Valmet M78/A2;
(z.38) Valmet M78 (NATO) LMG;[35]
(z.39) Valmet M82;[36] and
(z.40) Valmet M82 Bullpup.

65 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Armalite AR-180 Sporter carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

66 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Beretta AR70 assault rifle[37], and any variant or modified version of it.

67 The firearm of the design commonly known as the BM 59 rifle[38], and any variant or modified version of it, including

(a) the Beretta
(i) BM 59,
(ii) BM 59R,
(iii) BM 59GL,
(iv) BM 59D,
(v) BM 59 Mk E,
(vi) BM 59 Mk I,
(vii) BM 59 Mk Ital,
(viii) BM 59 Mk II,
(ix) BM 59 Mk III,
(x) BM 59 Mk Ital TA,
(xi) BM 59 Mk Ital Para,
(xii) BM 59 Mk Ital TP, and
(xiii) BM 60CB; and
(b) the Springfield Armory
(i) BM 59 Alpine,
(ii) BM 59 Alpine Paratrooper, and
(iii) BM 59 Nigerian Mk IV.

68 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Bushmaster Auto Rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

69 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Cetme Sport Auto Rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

70 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Daewoo K1 rifle[39], and any variant or modified version of it, including the Daewoo K1A1, K2, Max 1, Max 2, AR-100, AR 110C, MAXI-II and KC-20.

71 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Demro TAC-1M carbine[40], and any variant or modified version of it, including the Demro XF-7 Wasp Carbine.

72 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Eagle Apache Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

73 The firearm of the design commonly known as the FN-FNC rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the FNC Auto Rifle, FNC Auto Paratrooper, FNC-11, FNC-22 and FNC-33.

74 The firearm of the design commonly known as the FN-FAL (FN-LAR) rifle[41], and any variant or modified version of it, including the FN 308 Model 44, FN-FAL (FN-LAR) Competition Auto, FN-FAL (FN-LAR) Heavy Barrel 308 Match, FN-FAL (FN-LAR) Paratrooper 308 Match 50-64 and FN 308 Model 50-63.

75 The firearm of the design commonly known as the G3 rifle[42], and any variant or modified version of it, including the Heckler and Koch

(a) HK 91;
(b) HK 91A2;
(c) HK 91A3;
(d) HK G3 A3;[43]
(e) HK G3 A3 ZF;[44]
(f) HK G3 A4;[45]
(g) HK G3 SG/1; and[46]
(h) HK PSG1.[47]

76 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Galil assault rifle[48], and any variant or modified version of it, including the AP-84, Galil ARM, Galil AR, Galil SAR, Galil 332 and Mitchell Galil/22 Auto Rifle.

77 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Goncz High-Tech Carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

78 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Heckler and Koch HK 33 rifle[49], and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) HK 33A2;[50]
(b) HK 33A3;[51]
(c) HK 33KA1;[52]
(d) HK 93;
(e) HK 93A2; and
(f) HK 93A3.

79 The firearm of the design commonly known as the J & R Eng M-68 carbine, and any variant or modified version of it, including the PJK M-68 and the Wilkinson Terry carbine.

80 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Leader Mark Series Auto Rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

81 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the MP5 submachine gun and MP5 carbine[53], and any variants or modified versions of them, including the Heckler and Koch

(a) HK MP5;[54]
(b) HK MP5A2;
(c) HK MP5A3;
(d) HK MP5K;
(e) HK MP5SD;
(f) HK MP5SD1;
(g) HK MP5SD2;
(h) HK MP5SD3;
(i) HK 94;
(j) HK 94A2; and
(k) HK 94A3.

82 The firearm of the design commonly known as the PE57 rifle[55], and any variant or modified version of it.

83 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the SG-550 rifle[56] and SG-551 carbine[57], and any variants or modified versions of them.

84 The firearm of the design commonly known as the SIG AMT rifle, and any variant or modified version of it.

85 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Springfield Armory SAR-48 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the SAR-48 Bush, SAR-48 Heavy Barrel, SAR-48 Para and SAR-48 Model 22.

86 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Thompson submachine gun[58], and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) Thompson Model 1921;
(b) Thompson Model 1927;
(c) Thompson Model 1928;
(d) Thompson Model M1;
(e) Auto-Ordnance M27A-1;
(f) Auto-Ordnance M27A-1 Deluxe;
(g) Auto-Ordnance M1927A-3;
(h) Auto-Ordnance M1927A-5;
(i) Auto-Ordnance Thompson M1;
(j) Commando Arms Mk I;
(k) Commando Arms Mk II;
(l) Commando Arms Mk III;
(m) Commando Arms Mk 9; and
(n) Commando Arms Mk 45.
Other

87 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the M16, AR-10 and AR-15 rifles and the M4 carbine, and any variants or modified versions of them — other than one referred to in item 47, 49 or 50 of this Part — including the

(a) 2 Vets Arms 2VA-10;
(b) 2 Vets Arms 2VA-15;
(c) Accuracy Systems A-15 Custom Edition LR Tech Tactical;
(d) Adams Arms AA15;
(e) Adams Arms AASF-308;
(f) Adams Arms Multical;
(g) ADC ADC234;
(h) ADC ADC253;
(i) Adcor Defense A556 Elite GI;
(j) Adcor Defense ADC15;
(k) Adcor Defense B.E.A.R.;
(l) Adcor Defense Elite;
(m) Addax Tactical ADDAX-ZK;
(n) Addax Tactical AT-15;
(o) AdeQ Firearms L-Tac;
(p) AdeQ Firearms Paladin;
(q) AdeQ Firearms Venator;
(r) Advanced Armament Corporation MPW;
(s) Advanced Armaments Incorporated M15;
(t) Aero Precision A15;
(u) Aero Precision AP15;
(v) Aero Precision G15 Ghost Gun;
(w) Aero Precision H15;
(x) Aero Precision M4 Carbine;
(y) Aero Precision M4E1;
(z) Aero Precision M5;
(z.001) Aero Precision M16A4;
(z.002) Aero Precision Pistol;
(z.003) Aero Precision P-15 PEW;
(z.004) Aero Precision STS15;
(z.005) Aero Precision X15;
(z.006) Airtronic DMR;
(z.007) Alamo Tactical AT-15;
(z.008) Alberta Tactical Rifle AT15;
(z.009) Alexander Arms AAR15;
(z.01) Alexander Arms AAR15 Beowulf;
(z.011) Alexander Arms AAR15 Beowulf Overwatch;
(z.012) Alexander Arms AAR15 Genghis;
(z.013) Alexander Arms AAR15 Grendel;
(z.014) Alexander Arms AAR15 Grendel Overwatch;
(z.015) Alexander Arms AAR17;
(z.016) Alien Armory UFO-10;
(z.017) Ambush Firearms A11;
(z.018) Ameetec Arms AM-15 General;
(z.019) Ameetec Arms AM-15 Modular;
(z.02) Ameetec Arms AM-15 M4 Tactical Master;
(z.021) Ameetec Arms AM-15 Standard Tactical;
(z.022) Ameetec Arms AM-15 Standard Varmint;
(z.023) Ameetec Arms AM-15 Tactical Predator;
(z.024) Ameetec Arms AM-15 Varmint Master;
(z.025) Ameetec Arms AM-15 9MM;
(z.026) Ameetec Arms WM-15;
(z.027) America Remembers Colt AR15A2 Match HBar Vietnam Commemorative;
(z.028) American Defense Manufacturing UICH;
(z.029) American Defense Manufacturing UIC 10A;
(z.03) American Historical Foundation Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match HBar Vietnam Tribute Special Edition;
(z.031) American Historical Foundation Colt AR15A2 Sporter Target Operation Desert Storm Commemorative;
(z.032) American Precision Arms A15;
(z.033) American Spirit Arms ASA15;
(z.034) American Spirit Arms ASA15 Pistol;
(z.035) American Spirit Arms ASA308;
(z.036) American Spirit Arms Canadian Carbine;
(z.037) American Tactical Imports AT-15;
(z.038) American Tactical Imports ATI-15;
(z.039) American Tactical Imports MilSport;
(z.04) American Tactical Imports MilSport Canadian;
(z.041) American Tactical Imports Omni;
(z.042) American Tactical Imports Omni Hybrid;
(z.043) American Tactical Imports Omni Hybrid Pistol;
(z.044) American Tactical Imports T14;
(z.045) Anderson Manufacturing AM-10;
(z.046) Anderson Manufacturing AM-15;
(z.047) Angstadt Arms JACK9;
(z.048) Anvil Arms AA15;
(z.049) Area 53 El Capitan;
(z.05) Area 53 El Jefe;
(z.051) Ares Defense Systems Ares-15;
(z.052) Ares Defense Systems Ares-15 MCR;
(z.053) Ares Defense Systems Ares-15 MCR Sub-Carbine;
(z.054) Ares Defense Systems SCR;
(z.055) AR Five Seven AR15;
(z.056) AR Five Seven AR57 LEM;
(z.057) AR Five Seven AR57A1 PDW;
(z.058) Armalite AR-10A;
(z.059) Armalite AR-10A2;
(z.06) Armalite AR-10A4;
(z.061) Armalite AR-10B;
(z.062) Armalite AR-10 KLM;
(z.063) Armalite AR-10 Magnum;
(z.064) Armalite AR-10NM;
(z.065) Armalite AR-10T;
(z.066) Armalite AR-102 Sporter;
(z.067) Armalite M4C Carbine;
(z.068) Armalite M15;
(z.069) Armalite M15A2;
(z.07) Armalite M15A4;
(z.071) Armalite M15A4 T;
(z.072) Armalite M15 Pistol;
(z.073) Armalite SPR Mod 1;
(z.074) Armalite SPR Mod 2;
(z.075) Armalite SPR Mod 2A;
(z.076) Armalite AR-10 Pistol;
(z.077) Armi Jager AP15;
(z.078) Armi Jager AP74;
(z.079) Armitage International BR-15-A6S;
(z.08) Armscorp AC-15;
(z.081) Arms East N8S;
(z.082) Armtech X;
(z.083) Ascend Armory A15;
(z.084) AR15 Chatterbox CB-15;
(z.085) AR15.Com ARFCOM;
(z.086) AR15.Com AR15.Com;
(z.087) AXTS AX556;
(z.088) Badrock Tactical BR10;
(z.089) Badrock Tactical BR15;
(z.09) Bartlett Enterprises 1202009;
(z.091) Barrett Firearms M468;
(z.092) Barrett Firearms REC7;
(z.093) Barrett Firearms REC10;
(z.094) Battle Arms Development BAD-PDW;
(z.095) Battle Arms Development BAD-15;
(z.096) Battle Arms Development BAD556-LW;
(z.097) Battle Rifle Company BR15;
(z.098) Battle Rifle Company BR16;
(z.099) Battle Rifle Company BR308;
(z.1) BCI Defense SQS-15;
(z.101) BCM Rifle Company BCM4;
(z.102) BCM Rifle Company M4A1;
(z.103) Bean Firearms BFC-15A;
(z.104) Bear Creek Arsenal BCA15;
(z.105) Black Creek Labs BCL15;
(z.106) Black Creek Labs BCL102;
(z.107) Black Creek Labs BCL102B;
(z.108) Black Dawn BDR-15;
(z.109) Black Forge BF15;
(z.11) Blackheart International BHI-15;
(z.111) Black Leaf Industries BL10;
(z.112) Black Leaf Industries BL10B Prototype;
(z.113) Black Leaf Industries BL15;
(z.114) Black Rain Ordnance Fallout 10;
(z.115) Black Rain Ordnance Fallout 15;
(z.116) Black Rain Ordnance SPEC15;
(z.117) Black Rifle Company BRC15B;
(z.118) Blackwater BW-15;
(z.119) Black Weapons Armory BWA-15;
(z.12) Blue Line BL-15LE1;
(z.121) Boberg CDH-15;
(z.122) Bohica M16SA;
(z.123) BPM BP15;
(z.124) BPM CQB-10;
(z.125) BPM LR-10;
(z.126) Breda B4;
(z.127) Brownell’s BRN-16A1;
(z.128) Brownell’s BRN-601;
(z.129) Brownell’s XBRN16E1;
(z.13) Bushmaster Carbon 15;
(z.131) Bushmaster XM15E2S;
(z.132) Bushmaster XM15E2S Law Enforcement;
(z.133) Bushmaster XM15E2S M4;
(z.134) Bushmaster XM15E2S M4GP;
(z.135) Bushmaster XM15E2S Predator;
(z.136) Bushmaster XM15E2S Varminter;
(z.137) Bushmaster XM15E2S 450 Bushmaster;
(z.138) Bushmaster XM15E2S DCM Competition Rifle;
(z.139) Bushmaster Bushmaster 308;
(z.14) Bushmaster BAR-10;
(z.141) Bushmaster XM15E2S V Match;
(z.142) Bushmaster BR-308;
(z.143) C3 Defense C3-15;
(z.144) Cadex AR15 Karpat SPVM;
(z.145) Cadex CDX-10;
(z.146) Cadex CDX-15;
(z.147) Calguns AR15;
(z.148) Canstar Arms AR 338 Lapua;
(z.149) Cavalry Arms CAV-15;
(z.15) Cavalry Arms CAV-15 MARK 2;
(z.151) Cavalry Arms CAV-15 Rifleman;
(z.152) Centurion Arms C4;
(z.153) Centurion Tactical CT-15;
(z.154) Century Arms C15A1 Sporter;
(z.155) Century Arms C15 Sporter;
(z.156) Century International Arms Centurion 15 Sporter;
(z.157) Charles Daly Defense CDD-15;
(z.158) Chiappa Firearms M Four-22;
(z.159) Chiappa Firearms M Four-22 Pistol;
(z.16) Chirstensen Arms Carbon CA-10 DMR;
(z.161) Christensen Arms Carbon CA-10 G2;
(z.162) Christensen Arms Carbon CA-10 Recon;
(z.163) Christensen Arms Carbon CA-15;
(z.164) Christensen Arms Carbon CA-15 Predator;
(z.165) Christensen Arms Carbon CA-15 Recon;
(z.166) Christensen Arms Carbon CA TAC 10;
(z.167) Clark Custom Guns Gator;
(z.168) CLE MR15;
(z.169) CMMG Mod4SA;
(z.17) CMMG MK3;
(z.171) CMMG MK-4;
(z.172) CMMG MK-5;
(z.173) CMMG MK-8;
(z.174) CMMG MK-9;
(z.175) CMMG MKG-45;
(z.176) CMMG MKW-15;
(z.177) CMT LT-15;
(z.178) Cobalt Kinetics BAMF;
(z.179) Cobalt Kinetics CARS;
(z.18) Cobb MCR;
(z.181) Cobb MCR 30-06 SPRG 100th Anniversary Commemorative;
(z.182) Colt AR15A2 Sporter 2;
(z.183) Colt AR15;
(z.184) Colt AR15 SP1;
(z.185) Colt AR15A2 Match Target Lightweight;
(z.186) Colt AR15A2 Government;
(z.187) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Delta HBar;
(z.188) Colt AR15A2 Government Carbine;
(z.189) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Competition HBar;
(z.19) Colt AR15A2 Match Target HBar;
(z.191) Colt AR15A2;
(z.192) Colt AR15A2 Sporter HBar;
(z.193) Colt AR15 Match HBar;
(z.194) Colt AR15 Sporter;
(z.195) Colt M4 Carbine Match Target;
(z.196) Colt AR15A2 Match Target Target Model;
(z.197) Colt AR15A3 Tactical Carbine;
(z.198) Colt AR15A3 Match Target Competition HBar;
(z.199) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match Target Competition HBar 2;
(z.2) Colt AR15 Sporter Lightweight;
(z.201) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match Target Lightweight;
(z.202) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Target;
(z.203) Colt AR15A2 Government Target;
(z.204) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match Target HBar;
(z.205) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match Delta HBar;
(z.206) Colt AR15A2 Match Delta HBar;
(z.207) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match Target Competition HBar;
(z.208) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Competition HBar Range Selected;
(z.209) Colt AR15A2 Match Target Competition HBar 2;
(z.21) Colt CAR15A3 HBar Elite;
(z.211) Colt AR15 9MM Carbine;
(z.212) Colt AR15A2 Carbine;
(z.213) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Match HBar;
(z.214) Colt Colts Law Enforcement Carbine;
(z.215) Colt C7CT;
(z.216) Colt C7A1;
(z.217) Colt C7A2;
(z.218) Colt IUR;
(z.219) Colt M4 Carbine Sporter;
(z.22) Colt Modular Carbine;
(z.221) Colt M4A1 Carbine;
(z.222) Colt M4 Carbine;
(z.223) Colt SA15.7;
(z.224) Colt SA20;
(z.225) Colt AR-15A4;
(z.226) Colt AR15A4 Lightweight LE Carbine;
(z.227) Colt AR15 M16A1;
(z.228) Colt AR15 Target Model;
(z.229) Colt M4LE;
(z.23) Colt M4 Light Carbine;
(z.231) Colt M16 Rifle;
(z.232) Colt M16 SPR;
(z.233) Colt M16A2;
(z.234) Colt AR15A2 Sporter Carbine;
(z.235) Colt M16A2 Carbine;
(z.236) Colt SMG;
(z.237) Colt Competition CCR Competition;
(z.238) Colt Competition CSR Sporting;
(z.239) Combat Shooters BMF;
(z.24) Conquest Arms CA-15;
(z.241) Core Core-15;
(z.242) Cross Machine Tool UHP-15;
(z.243) Cross Machine Tool UHP15A;
(z.244) Cross Machine Tool UHP15H;
(z.245) Cross Machine Tool UHP15-PDW;
(z.246) Cross Machine Tool UHP15SSA;
(z.247) Cross Machine Tool UHP-10;
(z.248) Dalphon BFD;
(z.249) Dane Armory DAR-15;
(z.25) Daniel Defense DD-15;
(z.251) Daniel Defense M4 Carbine;
(z.252) Daniel Defense DD MK762;
(z.253) Daniel Defense DDM4;
(z.254) Daniel Defense DD5;
(z.255) Daniel Defense M4 Carbine Pistol;
(z.256) Dark Storm Industries DS-15;
(z.257) Defiance DMK22;
(z.258) Defiance Machine XG14;
(z.259) Delaware Machinery AR15;
(z.26) Delphi Tactical Delphi-15;
(z.261) Dennys Guns DG-AR16;
(z.262) Desert Ordnance XM4 Rifle;
(z.263) Detroit Gun Works DGW15;
(z.264) Devil Dog Arms DDA-15B;
(z.265) Devil Dog Arms DDA-10B;
(z.266) Dez Arms DTA-10;
(z.267) Diamondback Firearms DB-10;
(z.268) Diamondback Firearms DB-15;
(z.269) Diemaco Rifle C10;
(z.27) Diemaco Rifle Experimental 84;
(z.271) Dlask Arms AR15 Type;
(z.272) Dlask Arms DAR701;
(z.273) Dlask Arms DAR701 Canada 150 Birthday;
(z.274) Dlask Arms PAC-5;
(z.275) Dominion Arms DA556;
(z.276) Double Star Star-15;
(z.277) Double Star Star-15 Carbine;
(z.278) Double Star Star-15 Super Match Rifle;
(z.279) Double Star Star-15 CritterSlayer;
(z.28) Double Star Star-15 Expedition Rifle;
(z.281) Double Star Star-15 Dissipator;
(z.282) Double Star Star-15 Target Rifle;
(z.283) Double Star Star-15 Lightweight Tactical;
(z.284) Double Star Star-15 Pistol;
(z.285) Double Star Star-10B;
(z.286) Dow FAL-15;
(z.287) DPMS A-15;
(z.288) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull;
(z.289) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull Twenty-Four;
(z.29) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull Twenty-Four Special;
(z.291) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull Twenty-Four Super;
(z.292) DPMS A-15 Panther Bulldog;
(z.293) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull Sixteen;
(z.294) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull SST Sixteen;
(z.295) DPMS A-15 Panther Bull Classic;
(z.296) DPMS A-15 Panther Prairie;
(z.297) DPMS A-15 Panther Arctic;
(z.298) DPMS A-15 Panther Classic;
(z.299) DPMS A-15 Panther DCM;
(z.3) DPMS A-15 Panther Southpaw;
(z.301) DPMS A-15 Panther Classic Sixteen;
(z.302) DPMS A-15 Panther Kitty Kat;
(z.303) DPMS A-15 Panther Carbine;
(z.304) DPMS A-15 Panther Race Gun;
(z.305) DPMS A-15 Panther Tactical;
(z.306) DPMS A-15 Panther Classic Lo-Pro;
(z.307) DPMS LR-308 Panther;
(z.308) DPMS A-15 Panther Carbine M-4;
(z.309) DPMS A-15 Panther Lite;
(z.31) DPMS A-15 Panther Tuber;
(z.311) DPMS LR-300 Panther;
(z.312) DPMS A-15 Panther 20th Anniversary;
(z.313) DPMS LR-243 Panther;
(z.314) DPMS LR-260 Panther;
(z.315) DPMS LR-204 Panther;
(z.316) DPMS LR-30S Panther;
(z.317) DPMS A-15 Panther Pardus;
(z.318) DPMS LR-338 Panther;
(z.319) DPMS LR-6.5 Panther;
(z.32) DPMS A-15 Panther Sportical;
(z.321) DPMS A-15 Panther The Agency;
(z.322) DPMS A-15 Panther CSAT;
(z.323) DPMS A-15 Panther LBR Carbine;
(z.324) DPMS A-15 Panther Hunter;
(z.325) DPMS A-15 Panther 300 Blackout;
(z.326) DPMS LR-G2 Panther;
(z.327) DPMS A-15 Panther VRS Single Shot;
(z.328) DPMS A-15 Panther Pump Rifle;
(z.329) DPMS A-15 Panther 22;
(z.33) DPMS A-15 Panther VAS Single Shot;
(z.331) DPMS A-150 Panther;
(z.332) DPMS G2;
(z.333) DRD Paratus;
(z.334) DRD M762;
(z.335) DRD CDR-15;
(z.336) DRD Kivaari;
(z.337) DRD D8;
(z.338) DSA Incorporated ZM4;
(z.339) DTI DTI-15;
(z.34) Dynamic Arms Research (DAR) DAR-10;
(z.341) Dynamic Arms Research (DAR) DAR-15;
(z.342) E3 Arms Omega-15;
(z.343) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite AR-10;
(z.344) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite Eagle-15;
(z.345) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite M15;
(z.346) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite M15A2;
(z.347) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite M15A3;
(z.348) Eagle Arms Division of Armalite M15P;
(z.349) Eagle Arms Incorporated EA-15;
(z.35) EDs Tactical Armory 2A;
(z.351) Elite Machining GRX15;
(z.352) Emtan EM-15;
(z.353) Enfield Rifle Company MERC415;
(z.354) EP Armory AR15/M16 Type;
(z.355) Essential Arms Company J15;
(z.356) Essential Arms Company J15F;
(z.357) Essential Arms Company J15-2;
(z.358) F&D Defense FD308;
(z.359) F-1 Firearms BDR-10 CA;
(z.36) F-1 Firearms BDR-10-3G CA;
(z.361) F-1 Firearms BDR-15 CA;
(z.362) F-1 Firearms BDR-15-3G CA;
(z.363) F-1 Firearms FDR-15 CA;
(z.364) F-1 Firearms UDR-15-3G;
(z.365) Falkor Defense FD-15A;
(z.366) Faxon Firearms ARAK-21 XRS;
(z.367) Ferfrans SOACR;
(z.368) Fightlite Industries MCR;
(z.369) Firebird Precision Firearms FPX-15;
(z.37) FMK AR-1 Patriot;
(z.371) FMK AR1 Extreme;
(z.372) FN FNX-01;
(z.373) FN FN15;
(z.374) FN FN15 Carbine;
(z.375) FN FN15 Rifle;
(z.376) Fortis Manufacturing FM15;
(z.377) Frankford Arsenal XM-177E2;
(z.378) Franklin Armory F17-L;
(z.379) Franklin Armory F17-V4;
(z.38) Franklin Armory HSC-15;
(z.381) Franklin Armory Libertas;
(z.382) Fulton Armory FAR-15;
(z.383) Fulton Armory FAR-308;
(z.384) GA Precision GAP-10;
(z.385) GA Precision GAP-10 G2;
(z.386) Gilboa Shorty 7;
(z.387) Gilboa Commando 11.5;
(z.388) Gilboa SMG;
(z.389) Gilboa M-43;
(z.39) Gilboa Carabine 14.5;
(z.391) Gilboa DMR;
(z.392) Gilboa Snake;
(z.393) GPI Manufacturing SLR15;
(z.394) Grande Armeria Camuna (GAC) GAC-15;
(z.395) Grey Ghost Precision GGP-SBL;
(z.396) Grey Ghost Precision GGP-S Grim;
(z.397) Grey Ghost Precision GGP-S Heavy;
(z.398) Grey Ghost Precision GGP-SLF;
(z.399) Grey Ghost Precision GGP-S Light;
(z.4) Grey Ghost Precision Specter Light;
(z.401) GT Virtual Concepts GT15;
(z.402) GTO Core-15;
(z.403) GTO Hard Core 15;
(z.404) Gun Room Company Noreen Bad News;
(z.405) Gunwerks WY15;
(z.406) Haenel CR223;
(z.407) Haenel CR308;
(z.408) Hayes Custom Guns H15;
(z.409) Head Down HD-15;
(z.41) Heckler & Koch HK416D;
(z.411) Heckler & Koch HK417;
(z.412) Heckler & Koch HKM4C;
(z.413) Heckler & Koch MR;
(z.414) Heckler & Koch MR223;
(z.415) Heckler & Koch MR308;
(z.416) Heckler & Koch MR556A1;
(z.417) Heckler & Koch MR762A1;
(z.418) Hera Arms HLS;
(z.419) Hera Arms HCL;
(z.42) Hera Arms HCL9M;
(z.421) Hesse Arms HAR15A2;
(z.422) Hesse Arms HAR15A2 Bull Gun;
(z.423) Hesse Arms HAR15A2 National Match;
(z.424) Hesse Arms HAR15A2 Standard;
(z.425) Hesse Arms HAR25;
(z.426) Hesse Arms Omega Match;
(z.427) High Standard HSA-15;
(z.428) High Standard HSA-15 Crusader;
(z.429) High Standard HSA-15 Enforcer;
(z.43) High Standard HSA-15 Enforcer 300;
(z.431) Hogan Manufacturing H-308;
(z.432) Hogan Manufacturing H223;
(z.433) Hogan Manufacturing H-415;
(z.434) Hogan Manufacturing H-416;
(z.435) Holland Gunworks HGW15;
(z.436) Hughes Precision HR-15F;
(z.437) Huldra MARK 4;
(z.438) Imperial Defence Services M16A3;
(z.439) Interarms ISA-15;
(z.44) Inter Ordnance IO-G9;
(z.441) Intrepid Tactical Solutions RAS-12;
(z.442) Iron City Rifle Works IC-9;
(z.443) Iron City Rifle Works IC-15;
(z.444) Iron Ridge Arms IRA-10D;
(z.445) Irunguns Anarchy;
(z.446) ISSC PAR223 Delta;
(z.447) Jager AP74;
(z.448) Jard J15;
(z.449) JC Weaponry JC Weaponry;
(z.45) JD Machine PR3;
(z.451) Jesse James Firearms Unlimited M4 Carbine;
(z.452) Joe Firearms JOE-15;
(z.453) JP Enterprises JP-15 Match;
(z.454) JP Enterprises JP-15;
(z.455) JP Enterprises JP-15 IPSC Limited Class;
(z.456) JP Enterprises JP-15 NRA Match;
(z.457) JP Enterprises JP-15 Tactical/SOF;
(z.458) JP Enterprises AR-10;
(z.459) JP Enterprises Edge Grade 3;
(z.46) JP Enterprises CTR-02;
(z.461) JP Enterprises LRP-07;
(z.462) JP Enterprises SCR-11;
(z.463) JP Enterprises JPE-15;
(z.464) JP Enterprises MBRG-13;
(z.465) JP Enterprises GMR15;
(z.466) Juggernaut Tactical JT-10;
(z.467) Juggernaut Tactical JT-15;
(z.468) Kaiser Defense Calguns.Net;
(z.469) Kaiser Defense KR5;
(z.47) Kaiser Military Technologies KR7;
(z.471) KE Arms KE-15;
(z.472) Kiss Tactical KISS-15;
(z.473) Kiss Tactical K-15SE;
(z.474) Knights Manufacturing Company SR-15;
(z.475) Kodiak Defence JTF2 Silver Edition;
(z.476) Kodiak Defence KD9;
(z.477) Kodiak Defence KD15;
(z.478) Kodiak Defence Kodiak-15;
(z.479) Kodiak Defence Kodiak-39;
(z.48) Lancer Systems LP L15;
(z.481) Lancer Systems LP L30;
(z.482) Lantac LA-N15;
(z.483) Lantac LA-R15;
(z.484) Lantac LA-SF15;
(z.485) Lantac MK-4;
(z.486) LAR Manufacturing Grizzly-15;
(z.487) LAR Manufacturing AA15;
(z.488) LAR Manufacturing SK15;
(z.489) LaRue Tactical LT-15;
(z.49) LaRue Tactical LT-762;
(z.491) Lauer Custom Weaponry LCW15;
(z.492) Lead Star LSA9;
(z.493) LEI LM7;
(z.494) Leitner-Wise Rifle LW15-7.82;
(z.495) Leitner-Wise Rifle LW15-22;
(z.496) Leitner-Wise Rifle LW15-499;
(z.497) Les Baer Custom Ultimate AR;
(z.498) Les Baer Custom Ultimate;
(z.499) Les Baer Custom Match;
(z.5) Les Baer Custom Match AR;
(z.501) Les Baer Custom Thunder Ranch Special;
(z.502) Les Baer Custom Monolith SWAT;
(z.503) Les Baer Custom AR IPSC Action;
(z.504) Les Baer Custom AR Super Match;
(z.505) LMT Defender 2000;
(z.506) LMT L129A1;
(z.507) LMT LM308MWS;
(z.508) LMT MARS LS;
(z.509) Loki Weapon Systems LWSF;
(z.51) Lone Wolf R & D LWD-AR9G;
(z.511) Lone Wolf R & D LWD-AR9G Pistol;
(z.512) LRB Arms M15SA;
(z.513) Luvo BL-15LE;
(z.514) Luvo BL-15LE1;
(z.515) Luvo LA-15;
(z.516) LWRC SABR;
(z.517) LWRC REPR;
(z.518) LWRC Six8;
(z.519) LWRC CSASS;
(z.52) LWRC REPR MARK 2;
(z.521) LWRC 224 Valkyrie;
(z.522) LWRC M6IC;
(z.523) LWRC M6/M6A2;
(z.524) M2 M16C;
(z.525) M2 M16SP;
(z.526) M2 M16X;
(z.527) M2 M4N;
(z.528) M2 Patrol;
(z.529) M2 M16Z1;
(z.53) MAG Tactical Systems MG-G4;
(z.531) Magpul Armament MPLA;
(z.532) Manta Machining PA15;
(z.533) Manta Machining JH 308-F2;
(z.534) Matrix Aerospace MA-15;
(z.535) Matrix Aerospace M-762;
(z.536) Matrix Aerospace M762-D;
(z.537) Maxim Firearms B7075;
(z.538) McDuffee Arms MAR15;
(z.539) McDuffee Arms MLR308;
(z.54) McKay Enterprises RM16A2;
(z.541) Mega Arms MEGA MA-Ten;
(z.542) Mega Arms GTR-3H;
(z.543) Mega Machine Shop MEGA MMS;
(z.544) Mega Machine Shop MEGA Gator;
(z.545) Mega Machine Shop MEGA GTR-3H;
(z.546) Mega Machine Shop MEGA GTR-3S;
(z.547) Mega Machine Shop MEGA GTR-MA-Ten;
(z.548) Mega Machine Shop MEGA MG-XTR;
(z.549) MG Arms K-Yote;
(z.55) MG Arms Taranis Light;
(z.551) MGI Marck 15;
(z.552) MGO Zombie;
(z.553) Midwest Industries MI-15F;
(z.554) Miller Precision Arms MPA300 Guardian;
(z.555) Miller Precision Arms MPA556;
(z.556) Miller Precision Arms MPA762;
(z.557) Miller Precision Arms MPAR10;
(z.558) Mil-Sport AR15;
(z.559) Mil-Sport AR15 Pistol;
(z.56) Mitchell Arms CAR15/22;
(z.561) Mitchell Arms M16/22;
(z.562) Mitchell Arms M16A1/22;
(z.563) Mitchell Arms M16A3/22;
(z.564) MKE KNT-76;
(z.565) MMC Armory MA-15;
(z.566) MOLOT Vepr-15;
(z.567) Moores Machine Company MMC M4;
(z.568) Mossberg MMR Tactical;
(z.569) Mossberg MMR Hunter;
(z.57) Motiuk Manufacturing MRC-15;
(z.571) MVB Industries MVB-15F;
(z.572) Nemesis Arms 11X10;
(z.573) NEMO Battle Light;
(z.574) NEMO Omen;
(z.575) NEMO Battle Light 1.0;
(z.576) New Frontier Armory C9;
(z.577) New Frontier Armory G-15;
(z.578) New Frontier Armory LW-15;
(z.579) Next Generation Arms MFR;
(z.58) Next Generation Arms MP168 SPC;
(z.581) Next Level Armament NLX556;
(z.582) NoDak Spud NDS-16A1;
(z.583) NoDak Spud NDS-16A2;
(z.584) NoDak Spud NDS-601;
(z.585) NoDak Spud NDS-635;
(z.586) NoDak Spud NDS-XM16E1;
(z.587) Nord Arms NA-308;
(z.588) Nordic Components NC-PCC;
(z.589) Noreen Firearms Noreen Bad News;
(z.59) Noreen Firearms Noreen BN36;
(z.591) Noreen Firearms Noreen BN308;
(z.592) Norinco 311-3;
(z.593) Norinco Type CQ 311;
(z.594) Norinco Type CQ 311-1;
(z.595) Norinco Type CQ Semi-Automatic Rifle;
(z.596) Norinco Type CQ-A Semi-Automatic Rifle;
(z.597) Norinco Type CQ-A-1 Semi-Automatic Rifle;
(z.598) North Eastern Arms NEA-15;
(z.599) North Eastern Arms NEA-15 Pistol;
(z.6) North Eastern Arms NEA-25;
(z.601) North Eastern Arms NEA102;
(z.602) Northtech Defense NT15S;
(z.603) Noveske N4;
(z.604) Noveske N6;
(z.605) Noveske Varmageddon AR;
(z.606) Oberland Arms OA10;
(z.607) Oberland Arms OA15;
(z.608) Olympic Arms PCR;
(z.609) Olympic Arms MFR;
(z.61) Olympic Arms K3B;
(z.611) Olympic Arms K40GL;
(z.612) Olympic Arms K9GL;
(z.613) Olympic Arms LTF;
(z.614) Olympic Arms Plinker Plus;
(z.615) Olympic Arms UM1P Ultramatch;
(z.616) Olympic Arms UMAR;
(z.617) Olympic Arms MPR 308-15;
(z.618) Olympic Arms CAR15 AR;
(z.619) Olympic Arms CAR97;
(z.62) Olympic Arms UM1 Ultramatch;
(z.621) Olympic Arms ML1 Multimatch;
(z.622) Olympic Arms ML2 Multimatch;
(z.623) Olympic Arms K4B;
(z.624) Olympic Arms Bill of Rights Bicentennial Commemorative;
(z.625) Olympic Arms SM1 Servicematch;
(z.626) Olympic Arms Titanium;
(z.627) Olympic Arms Plinker;
(z.628) Olympic Arms FAR-15;
(z.629) Olympic Arms K8;
(z.63) Olympic Arms MQ356;
(z.631) Olympic Arms Vietnam Limited Edition Commemorative;
(z.632) Olympic Arms SM1P Servicematch;
(z.633) Olympic Arms K22 Rimfire Target Match;
(z.634) Palmetto Armory BH15A1;
(z.635) Palmetto State Armory GX-9;
(z.636) Palmetto State Armory PA-10;
(z.637) Palmetto State Armory PA-15;
(z.638) Palmetto State Armory PX9;
(z.639) Palmetto State Armory PX-10;
(z.64) Patriot Defense Arms PDA-15;
(z.641) Performance Engineering SOT-15;
(z.642) Phase 5 Tactical P5T15;
(z.643) Phase 5 Tactical Atlas One;
(z.644) Plumcrazy Firearms C15;
(z.645) POF CMR;
(z.646) POF P-15;
(z.647) POF P300;
(z.648) POF P308;
(z.649) POF P415;
(z.65) POF P416;
(z.651) Poly Technologies Type CQ-A Semi-Automatic Rifle;
(z.652) Precision Firearms PF15;
(z.653) Precision Firearms PF-X08;
(z.654) PWA AR15 Commando;
(z.655) PWA Commando;
(z.656) PWS MARK 1;
(z.657) PWS MARK 2;
(z.658) PWS MARK 1 Modern Musket;
(z.659) PWS PCC9;
(z.66) PWS MARK 1 Pistol;
(z.661) PWS MARK 1 Modern Musket Pistol;
(z.662) PWS MARK 1 Mod 2-M;
(z.663) Q Honey Badger;
(z.664) Quartercircle10 GSF Pistol;
(z.665) Quentin Defense QD-15;
(z.666) Quentin Defense SBR;
(z.667) Quentin Defense ZRT;
(z.668) Radian 1;
(z.669) Radical Firearms RF-15;
(z.67) Radical Firearms RM-15;
(z.671) Radical Firearms RMR-10;
(z.672) Rainier Arms Overthrow;
(z.673) Rainier Arms RB-15;
(z.674) Rainier Arms RB308;
(z.675) Rainier Arms RM-15;
(z.676) Rat Worx M-7;
(z.677) Red River Tactical RRT-TAC15;
(z.678) Red Stag Technologies Red Stag;
(z.679) Remington R15 VTR;
(z.68) Remington LRP-07;
(z.681) Remington R4;
(z.682) Remington R25;
(z.683) Remington R25 G2;
(z.684) Revolution Armory AR-410;
(z.685) RGM Incorporated Marksman;
(z.686) RGuns TRR15;
(z.687) Rhino Arms RA-4;
(z.688) Rhino Arms RA-4R;
(z.689) Rise Armament Ripper;
(z.69) RND Edge;
(z.691) Rock Island Armory M15A1;
(z.692) Rock Island Armory XM15;
(z.693) Rock Island Armory XM15E2;
(z.694) Rock River Arms LAR-15;
(z.695) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Law Enforcement;
(z.696) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Varmint;
(z.697) Rock River Arms LAR-15/9MM;
(z.698) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Pistol;
(z.699) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Elite;
(z.7) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Coyote;
(z.701) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Predator Pursuit;
(z.702) Rock River Arms LAR-458;
(z.703) Rock River Arms LAR-6.8;
(z.704) Rock River Arms LAR-8;
(z.705) Rock River Arms LAR-15 ATH;
(z.706) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Operator;
(z.707) Rock River Arms LAR-8 Operator;
(z.708) Rock River Arms LAR-47;
(z.709) Rock River Arms LAR-15LH;
(z.71) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Hunter;
(z.711) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Fred Eichler Series;
(z.712) Rock River Arms LAR-15 R3 Competition;
(z.713) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Texas;
(z.714) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Tactical;
(z.715) Rock River Arms LAR-15 Government;
(z.716) Rock River Arms LAR-15 TASC;
(z.717) Rock River Arms LAR-15 National Match;
(z.718) Rock River Arms LAR-15 DEA;
(z.719) Rock River Arms LAR-9;
(z.72) Rock River Arms LAR-9 Pistol;
(z.721) Rock River Arms LAR-40;
(z.722) Rock River Arms LAR-PDS;
(z.723) Rock River Arms LAR-40 Pistol;
(z.724) Rock River Arms LAR-6;
(z.725) Rock River Arms LAR-8M;
(z.726) Rock River Arms LAR-10;
(z.727) Rocky Point Guns LE15;
(z.728) Roggio RA15;
(z.729) Royal Arms Rak15;
(z.73) Ruger SR556;
(z.731) Ruger SR556 VT;
(z.732) Ruger AR556;
(z.733) S&J Hardware SJ-15;
(z.734) Sabatti SAR;
(z.735) Sabertooth Defence M4;
(z.736) Sabre Defence Industries SR-15;
(z.737) Sabre Defence Industries XR10;
(z.738) Sabre Defence Industries XR15;
(z.739) Safir T12;
(z.74) Safir T14;
(z.741) Salient Arms International GRY;
(z.742) Salient Arms International SAI-T2;
(z.743) Savage MSR-10;
(z.744) Savage MSR-15;
(z.745) Schmeisser AR15;
(z.746) Schmeisser MR-BA19;
(z.747) Seekins Precision NX15;
(z.748) Seekins Precision SBA15;
(z.749) Seekins Precision SP15;
(z.75) Seekins Precision SP223;
(z.751) Seekins Precision SPX;
(z.752) Sendra Corp M15A1;
(z.753) Sendra Corp XM15E2;
(z.754) SFRC SFRC-15;
(z.755) SGW AR15;
(z.756) SGW AR15A1;
(z.757) SGW AR15A2;
(z.758) SGW CAR15;
(z.759) SGW CAR15 AR;
(z.76) SGW K3B;
(z.761) SGW Ultra Match Rifle;
(z.762) SGW XM15A1;
(z.763) Sharps Bros The Jack;
(z.764) Sharps Bros Warthog;
(z.765) Sharps Rifle Company Sharps 15;
(z.766) ShoeLess Ventures FAB10;
(z.767) Shooting Edge OA15;
(z.768) SI Defense SI AR-15;
(z.769) SI Defense SI-D;
(z.77) SI Defense SI-HK;
(z.771) SI Defense SI-C;
(z.772) SIG Sauer SIG 516;
(z.773) SIG Sauer SIG 716;
(z.774) SIG Sauer SIG M400;
(z.775) SIG Sauer SIG M400 Elite;
(z.776) Six Sigma Arms P18-32;
(z.777) Smith & Wesson M&P 15T;
(z.778) Smith & Wesson M&P 15;
(z.779) Smith & Wesson M&P 15-22;
(z.78) Smith & Wesson M&P 15FT;
(z.781) Smith & Wesson M&P 15-22PC;
(z.782) Smith & Wesson M&P 15 Magpul;
(z.783) Smith & Wesson M&P 10;
(z.784) Smith & Wesson M&P 15A;
(z.785) Smith & Wesson M&P 15PC;
(z.786) Smith & Wesson M&P 15OR;
(z.787) Smith & Wesson M&P 15PS;
(z.788) Smith & Wesson M&P 10 Creedmoor;
(z.789) Smith & Wesson M&P 15i;
(z.79) SMOS SM-15;
(z.791) SMOS Rogue-15;
(z.792) SMOS Rogue-50;
(z.793) Sniper Central SI-C;
(z.794) SNS Industries Max 15;
(z.795) SNS Industries LFT-15;
(z.796) SNS Industries NO-15;
(z.797) SNS Industries Max 15 Pistol;
(z.798) Socom Firearms Corporation Recon AR15;
(z.799) Socom Manufacturing BR-15-A6S;
(z.8) Spartan Precision SP15;
(z.801) Special Ops Tactical SO15;
(z.802) Spike’s Tactical ST-15;
(z.803) Spike’s Tactical SL-15;
(z.804) Spike’s Tactical ST-22;
(z.805) Spike’s Tactical CJ15;
(z.806) Spike’s Tactical Hellbreaker;
(z.807) Spike’s Tactical Warthog;
(z.808) Spike’s Tactical The Jack;
(z.809) Spike’s Tactical Spartan;
(z.81) Spike’s Tactical Jack 10;
(z.811) Spirit Gun Manufacturing Company SGM9;
(z.812) Springfield Armory Saint;
(z.813) STAG Arms STAG-6L;
(z.814) STAG Arms STAG-6.8;
(z.815) STAG Arms STAG-9;
(z.816) STAG Arms STAG-10;
(z.817) STAG Arms STAG-10S;
(z.818) STAG Arms STAG-15;
(z.819) STAG Arms STAG-223;
(z.82) Sterling Arms SAI 102;
(z.821) STI International AR15 Custom Rifle;
(z.822) Stillers Precision Firearms Predator XT;
(z.823) Stoner SR-25;
(z.824) Stoner SR-15;
(z.825) Stoner MARK 11 Model 0;
(z.826) Stoner M110;
(z.827) Stoner XM110;
(z.828) Stoner MARK 11 Model 1;
(z.829) Sun Devil SD15;
(z.83) Sun Devil SD308;
(z.831) Superior Arms S-15;
(z.832) Surplus Ammo & Arms LOW15;
(z.833) Surplus Ammo & Arms LOW16;
(z.834) Surplus Ammo & Arms SA15;
(z.835) SWAT Firearms SF-15;
(z.836) SWORD International MARK 15 Model 0;
(z.837) SWORD International MARK 16 Model 0;
(z.838) SWORD International MARK 17 Model 0;
(z.839) SWORD International MARK 18 Model 0;
(z.84) SWORD International MARK 18 Model 0 Mjolnir;
(z.841) Tactical Armz TA-15;
(z.842) Tactical Innovations T-15;
(z.843) Tactical Innovations T-15BDX;
(z.844) Tactical Machining TM-15;
(z.845) Tactical Machining TM308;
(z.846) Tactical Machining TSG-15;
(z.847) Tactical Rifles Government;
(z.848) Tactical Rifles Tactical M4C;
(z.849) Tactical Rifles Tactical SPG;
(z.85) Tactical Rifles Tactical SVR;
(z.851) Talon Arms TA-15;
(z.852) Taran Tactical TR-1;
(z.853) Tech Designs AR-15;
(z.854) Territorial Gunsmiths SLR15;
(z.855) Thor TR15 Carbine;
(z.856) Tippmann Arms M4-22;
(z.857) Titusville Armory TA-15;
(z.858) TKS Engineering AR15HD;
(z.859) TNW SGP15;
(z.86) Tom Sawyer M4-Z1;
(z.861) Tom Sawyer Jolly Roger;
(z.862) Trojan Firearms PRO9V1;
(z.863) Trojan Firearms TFA-PCC9G;
(z.864) Trojan Firearms ULV1;
(z.865) Troy Defense Troy 102;
(z.866) Troy Defense Troy Carbine;
(z.867) Troy Defense Troy M4A1 Carbine;
(z.868) Troy Defense Troy M4A1 SOCC;
(z.869) Troy Defense Troy M7A1 CQB;
(z.87) Troy Defense Troy M7A1 PDW Carbine;
(z.871) Troy Defense Troy M16A2 Mogadishu;
(z.872) Troy Defense Troy Northern Guard;
(z.873) Troy Industries Troy CQB-SPC;
(z.874) True North Arms TNA-15;
(z.875) Turnbull Manufacturing TAR-15;
(z.876) Turnbull Manufacturing TAR-10;
(z.877) Umbrella Corporation AR15;
(z.878) Umlaut Industries U4;
(z.879) Unik Alpha;
(z.88) United Defense S7;
(z.881) US Arms Patriot 15;
(z.882) US Autoweapons USM4;
(z.883) US Firearms Academy BB-16;
(z.884) USA Tactical Firearms USA-15;
(z.885) UT Arms GEN-1AR;
(z.886) Utas XTR-12;
(z.887) V Seven Weapons GI Seven;
(z.888) VC Defense VC-15;
(z.889) Vidalia Police Supply VPS-15;
(z.89) VM Hy-Tech VM15;
(z.891) Vulcan Armament V15;
(z.892) Web Arms WA-15;
(z.893) Wilson Combat AR15 UT;
(z.894) Wilson Combat AR15 TPR;
(z.895) Wilson Combat AR15 M4;
(z.896) Wilson Combat AR15 TL;
(z.897) Wilson Combat AR15 SM;
(z.898) Wilson Combat AR15 SS;
(z.899) Wilson Combat AR15;
(z.9) Wilson Combat AR-10;
(z.901) Wilson Combat AR9G;
(z.902) Wilson Tactical WT-15;
(z.903) Windham Weaponry MCS;
(z.904) Windham Weaponry WW-15;
(z.905) Windham Weaponry WW-308;
(z.906) Windham Weaponry WW-CF;
(z.907) WMA WMA-15;
(z.908) Wolverine Tactical Firearms WAR-15;
(z.909) Wolverine Tactical Firearms WT-15;
(z.91) Xtreme Gun XG15;
(z.911) Xtreme Machining XR15;
(z.912) YHM 57;
(z.913) YHM YHM-15;
(z.914) ZEV Technologies Mega-LF;
(z.915) ZEV Technologies Mega-TR15;
(z.916) ZEV Technologies ZEV-BL;
(z.917) ZEV Technologies ZEV-FL;
(z.918) ZM Weapons LR300ML;
(z.919) ZM Weapons LR300SR; and
(z.92) Zombie Defense Z-4.

88 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Ruger Mini-14 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) Clark Custom Guns Ruger Mini-14;
(b) Ruger Mini-14 GB;
(c) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Rifle;
(d) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Rifle Deluxe;
(e) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Rifle LE;
(f) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Rifle LET;
(g) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Rifle NRA Edition;
(h) Ruger Mini-14 Ranch Target Rifle; and
(i) Ruger Mini Thirty.

89 The firearm of the design commonly known as the US Rifle, M14, and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) American Historical Foundation Federal Ordnance M14 US Rifle Vietnam War Commemorative;
(b) Armscorp US Rifle M14;
(c) Armscorp US Rifle M14 National Match;
(d) AR Sales MARK 4;
(e) Bula Defense Systems M14;
(f) Dominion Arms Socom 18;
(g) Entreprise Arms US Rifle M14A2;
(h) Federal Ordnance M14SA US Rifle;
(i) Fulton Armory M14;
(j) Hesse Arms M14H Brush;
(k) Hesse Arms M14H;
(l) James River Armory M14;
(m) La France Specialties M14K;
(n) LRB Arms M14SA US Rifle;
(o) LRB Arms M25;
(p) McMillan M1A;
(q) McMillan M3A;
(r) MK Specialties M14A1 Semi-Automatic;
(s) Norinco M14 Semi-Automatic;
(t) Norinco 305;
(u) Norinco CSLR27;
(v) Norinco CSLR28;
(w) Norinco M305;
(x) Norinco 305A;
(y) Norinco M305C;
(z) Norinco M305D;
(z.01) Poly Technologies M14 Semi-Automatic;
(z.02) Poly Technologies M305;
(z.03) Rockola US Rifle M14F;
(z.04) Smith Enterprises US Rifle M14 National Match;
(z.05) Smith Enterprises US Rifle M14;
(z.06) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A-A1 Bush Rifle;
(z.07) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A-A1 Scout Rifle;
(z.08) Springfield Armory US Rifle M21;
(z.09) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A National Match;
(z.1) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A Super Match;
(z.11) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A;
(z.12) Springfield Armory US Rifle M25;
(z.13) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A SOCOM 16;
(z.14) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A SOCOM 2;
(z.15) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A NRA Camp Perry National Matches 100th Anniversary;
(z.16) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A Loaded; and
(z.17) Springfield Armory US Rifle M1A Scout Squad.

90 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Vz58 rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the

(a) Century Arms VZ2008 Sporter;
(b) CZ CZ958 2P;
(c) CZ CZ958 2V;
(d) CZ CZ958 Hunter P;
(e) CZ CZH2003 Sport;
(f) CZ CZ858 Tactical-2 P;
(g) CZ CZ858 Tactical-2 V;
(h) CZ CZ858 Tactical-4 P;
(i) CZ CZ858 Tactical-4 V;
(j) CZ CZ858 Tactical-2 P Spartan Limited Edition;
(k) Czech Small Arms SA VZ58 Canadian Sporter 7.62;
(l) Czech Small Arms SA VZ58 Sporter 5.56;
(m) Czech Small Arms SA VZ58 Sporter 7.62;
(n) Czech Small Arms SA VZ58 Sporter 222 REM;
(o) Czech Small Arms SA VZ58 Sporter 223 REM;
(p) D-Technik SA VZ58 Sporter 7.62;
(q) Gazela Gazela 58;
(r) Grand Power SA VZ58 Sporter 7.62;
(s) Kodiak Defence WR762;
(t) Ohio Ordnance Works VZ2000;
(u) Petr Novohradsky FSN-01;
(v) Petr Novohradsky FSN-01K;
(w) PPK KSK;
(x) PPK KSK Hunter;
(y) Rock Island Armory WR762USA;
(z) West Rifle WR762; and
(z.1) Zelanysport Gazela 58.

91 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Robinson Armament XCR rifle, and any variant or modified version of it, including the Robinson Armament

(a) XCR-L;
(b) XCR-L Micro Pistol;
(c) XCR-M; and
(d) XCR-M Micro Pistol.

92 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the CZ Scorpion EVO 3 carbine and CZ Scorpion EVO 3 pistol, and any variants or modified versions of them, including the CZ

(a) CZ Scorpion EVO 3 S1 Carbine;
(b) CZ Scorpion EVO 3 S1 Pistol; and
(c) CZ Scorpion EVO 3 S2 Pistol Micro.

93 The firearm of the design commonly known as the Beretta Cx4 Storm carbine, and any variant or modified version of it.

94 The firearms of the designs commonly known as the SIG Sauer SIG MCX carbine, SIG Sauer SIG MCX pistol, SIG Sauer SIG MPX carbine and SIG Sauer SIG MPX pistol, and any variants or modified versions of them, including the SIG Sauer

(a) SIG MCX Rattler; and
(b) SIG MCX Rattler Pistol.

95 Any firearm with a bore diameter of 20 mm or greater — other than one designed exclusively for the purpose of neutralizing explosive devices — including the

(a) Aerotek NTW;
(b) Airtronic M203;
(c) Alpimex APK 20;
(d) Amtec Less-Lethal Systems (ALS) 40MM Launcher;
(e) Anzio Ironworks Anzio 20;
(f) Argentine Mortar FMK2 81MM;
(g) Argentine Mortar FMK2 120MM;
(h) Argentine Mortar FMK1 60MM;
(i) Argentine Mortar FMK2 60MM;
(j) Argentine Mortar FMK3 60MM;
(k) Armsan BA 40;
(l) Armscor Stopper;
(m) Arsenal UGGL-M1;
(n) Arsenal UBGL;
(o) Arsenal MSGL;
(p) Astra Arms SL203;
(q) Astra Arms GL203;
(r) Austrian Mortar C6 60MM;
(s) Austrian Mortar M6 60MM;
(t) Austrian Mortar M8 81MM;
(u) Austrian Mortar M12 120MM;
(v) Bates & Dittus UBL-37;
(w) Bates & Dittus ExD-37;
(x) Bates & Dittus TBL-37;
(y) Bates & Dittus SML-37 Pistol;
(z) Beretta GLX160;
(z.001) British Mortar ML-3 Inch;
(z.002) British Mortar ML-4.2 Inch;
(z.003) Brugger & Thomet GL06;
(z.004) Bulgarian Mortar M60 60MM;
(z.005) Bulgarian Mortar M81 81MM;
(z.006) Bulgarian Mortar M82 82MM;
(z.007) Chilean Mortar Commando;
(z.008) Chilean Mortar M57 81MM;
(z.009) China Lake EX-41;
(z.01) Chinese Mortar Type 53;
(z.011) Cobray 37MM Launcher;
(z.012) Colt Eagle;
(z.013) Colt M203;
(z.014) Colt M79;
(z.015) Corner Blast PGL A1;
(z.016) CQ Type CQ 40MM;
(z.017) Croatian Service RT-20;
(z.018) CZ CZ805 G1;
(z.019) Czech Weapons SAG 30;
(z.02) Czech Weapons CZW 40;
(z.021) Czechoslovakian Mortar VZ52;
(z.022) Daewoo K201;
(z.023) Defense Technology L8;
(z.024) Defense Technology 40MM Launcher;
(z.025) Defense Technology 37MM Gas Gun;
(z.026) Defense Technology 37MM Gas Gun Pistol;
(z.027) Defense Technology 1375 Multi-Launcher;
(z.028) Degtyarev ASVK;
(z.029) Denel NTW 20HS;
(z.03) Denel PAW-20;
(z.031) Denel NTW;
(z.032) Dezamet GSBO-40;
(z.033) Dezamet GPBO-40;
(z.034) Diemaco M203A1;
(z.035) Diemaco Eagle;
(z.036) DPMS A-15 37MM Launcher;
(z.037) DSA 40MM Launcher;
(z.038) DSA Incorporated M203;
(z.039) Elite Machining ELM-40;
(z.04) ERE Systems M203 ERE Elite Launcher;
(z.041) Et Cetera 37MM Launcher;
(z.042) Exotic Firearms Nemesis-SL;
(z.043) Federal Laboratories 201Z;
(z.044) Federal Laboratories 203A;
(z.045) Federal Laboratories Federal Gas Riot Gun;
(z.046) Floro International 40MM Launcher;
(z.047) Floro International M400;
(z.048) Floro International M203;
(z.049) FN EGLM;
(z.05) FN MARK 13 Model 0;
(z.051) FN FN40GL;
(z.052) German Anti-Tank Rifle GrB39;
(z.053) German Anti-Tank Rifle M41;
(z.054) German Anti-Tank Rifle PzB38;
(z.055) German Anti-Tank Rifle PzB39;
(z.056) German Anti-Tank Rifle PzB41;
(z.057) German Mortar 1934 Granatwerfer;
(z.058) German Mortar Kurzer Granatewerfer 42;
(z.059) Greek Mortar C6 60MM;
(z.06) Greek Mortar E44 81MM;
(z.061) Greek Mortar E56 120MM;
(z.062) Heckler & Koch HKMZP1;
(z.063) Heckler & Koch HK69A1 Granatpistole;
(z.064) Heckler & Koch HKAG-G36;
(z.065) Heckler & Koch HKAG-C;
(z.066) Heckler & Koch HKXM320;
(z.067) Heckler & Koch HKAG-HK416;
(z.068) Heckler & Koch HKAG 36;
(z.069) Heckler & Koch HKGLM;
(z.07) Heckler & Koch HKAG-M16A4;
(z.071) Heckler & Koch HKAG-M4;
(z.072) Heckler & Koch HKM320;
(z.073) Heckler & Koch HKM320 A1;
(z.074) Heckler & Koch HK168E1;
(z.075) Heckler & Koch HK79;
(z.076) Heckler & Koch HK269;
(z.077) Heckler & Koch HK169;
(z.078) Helenius RK20;
(z.079) Helenius RK99 MARK 2;
(z.08) Hotchkiss 1934 Canon SAH;
(z.081) IOF Ugra;
(z.082) IOF UBGL;
(z.083) IOF Vidhwansak;
(z.084) Israeli Mortar C03;
(z.085) Italian Mortar Otobreda 81MM;
(z.086) IWI UBGL;
(z.087) Japanese Anti-Tank Rifle Type 97;
(z.088) Knights Armament Company M203;
(z.089) Lahti 39;
(z.09) Lake Erie Chemical Company Tru-Flite;
(z.091) Lamperd L40SL;
(z.092) LEI M203-PR;
(z.093) LMT M203;
(z.094) LMT M2032003 FMT;
(z.095) LMT 37MM Launcher;
(z.096) LMT 40MM Launcher;
(z.097) Luvo M203;
(z.098) Maadi UBGL;
(z.099) Manville Manville Gas Gun;
(z.1) Metallic Limited RBG-1;
(z.101) Metallic Limited RBG-6;
(z.102) Milkor Stopper;
(z.103) Milkor MGL MARK 1;
(z.104) Milkor M79;
(z.105) Milkor MRGL;
(z.106) Milkor USA MGL-140 M32;
(z.107) Milkor USA MGL-140;
(z.108) Milkor USA MGL-105;
(z.109) Milkor USA MGL-AV140;
(z.11) Missile Launcher 9K111 Fagot;
(z.111) Missile Launcher 9K310 Igla-1;
(z.112) Missile Launcher 9K32 Strela-2;
(z.113) Missile Launcher 9K34 Strela-3;
(z.114) Missile Launcher 9K38 Igla;
(z.115) Missile Launcher BGM-71 TOW;
(z.116) Missile Launcher Eryx;
(z.117) Missile Launcher FGM-148 Javelin;
(z.118) Missile Launcher FIM-43 Redeye;
(z.119) Missile Launcher FIM-92 Stinger;
(z.12) Missile Launcher HN-5;
(z.121) Missile Launcher Ingwe;
(z.122) Missile Launcher M47 Dragon;
(z.123) Missile Launcher MILAN;
(z.124) Missile Launcher Saegheh;
(z.125) Missile Launcher Starstreak;
(z.126) Missile Launcher Toophan;
(z.127) Missile Launcher Type 79;
(z.128) MKE T40;
(z.129) MKE Grenade Launcher;
(z.13) Oerlikon SSG 32;
(z.131) Oerlikon SSG 36;
(z.132) Ordnance Group TAC79;
(z.133) Ordnance Group TAC-D;
(z.134) Penn Arms L140;
(z.135) Penn Arms H140;
(z.136) Penn Arms P540;
(z.137) Penn Arms L640;
(z.138) Penn Arms P837;
(z.139) Penn Arms L837;
(z.14) Penn Arms L137;
(z.141) Penn Arms AML1-37;
(z.142) Penn Arms HL;
(z.143) Penn Arms HG;
(z.144) Penn Arms L8;
(z.145) Penn Arms L6;
(z.146) Penn Arms L1;
(z.147) Penn Arms GL1;
(z.148) Penn Arms PGL65;
(z.149) Penn Arms GL6;
(z.15) Penn Arms GL65;
(z.151) Penn Arms PL8;
(z.152) Penn Arms TL1;
(z.153) Penn Arms TL8;
(z.154) Penn Arms TGL1;
(z.155) Penn Arms TGL6;
(z.156) Pindad SPG-1;
(z.157) PMP NTW;
(z.158) Polish Grenade Launcher Wz74;
(z.159) Polish Grenade Launcher Wz83;
(z.16) Portuguese Mortar M965;
(z.161) Portuguese Mortar M937;
(z.162) Recoilless Rifle AT4;
(z.163) Recoilless Rifle B-10;
(z.164) Recoilless Rifle FMK1 105MM;
(z.165) Recoilless Rifle Folgore;
(z.166) Recoilless Rifle M136 AT4;
(z.167) Recoilless Rifle M18A1;
(z.168) Recoilless Rifle M40A1;
(z.169) Recoilless Rifle M60;
(z.17) Recoilless Rifle M60A;
(z.171) Recoilless Rifle M65;
(z.172) Recoilless Rifle Pansarskott M68 Miniman;
(z.173) Recoilless Rifle RGW 60;
(z.174) Recoilless Rifle RGW 90;
(z.175) Recoilless Rifle SPG-9;
(z.176) Recoilless Rifle Type 36 M18A1 Recoilless Rifle Copy;
(z.177) Recoilless Rifle Type 65;
(z.178) Recoilless Rifle Type 78;
(z.179) Rippel Effect XRGL40;
(z.18) Rippel Effect LL40;
(z.181) RM Equipment M203PI;
(z.182) Rocket Launcher P27;
(z.183) Rocket Launcher RPG-27 Tavolga;
(z.184) Rocket Launcher ALAC;
(z.185) Rocket Launcher MARA;
(z.186) Rocket Launcher Shipon;
(z.187) Rocket Launcher RPG-22 Netto;
(z.188) Rocket Launcher MARK 153 SMAW;
(z.189) Rocket Launcher B-300;
(z.19) Rocket Launcher RPG-26 Aglen;
(z.191) Rocket Launcher RPG-76;
(z.192) Rocket Launcher RPG-7;
(z.193) Rocket Launcher M1;
(z.194) Rocket Launcher M1A1;
(z.195) Rocket Launcher M9;
(z.196) Rocket Launcher RPG-75;
(z.197) Rocket Launcher LRAC89-F1;
(z.198) Rocket Launcher RPG-16 Udar;
(z.199) Rocket Launcher RPG-7B;
(z.2) Rocket Launcher RL100 Blindicide;
(z.201) Rocket Launcher M141 SMAW-D;
(z.202) Rocket Launcher MARK 777 RPG;
(z.203) Rocket Launcher ATGL RPG;
(z.204) Rocket Launcher Type 69 RPG;
(z.205) Rocket Launcher Type 56 RPG;
(z.206) Rocket Launcher RPG-2;
(z.207) Rocket Launcher Cobra RPG;
(z.208) Rocket Launcher Panzerfaust 3;
(z.209) Rocket Launcher APILAS;
(z.21) Rocket Launcher Wasp;
(z.211) Rocket Launcher Bunkerfaust;
(z.212) Rocket Launcher Type 2004 RPG;
(z.213) Rocket Launcher PF98;
(z.214) Rocket Launcher RPG-28 Klyukva;
(z.215) Rocket Launcher RPG-29 Vampir;
(z.216) Rocket Launcher FT5;
(z.217) Rocket Launcher C90;
(z.218) Rocket Launcher M20B1;
(z.219) Rocket Launcher M72;
(z.22) Romarm AG-40;
(z.221) Russian Artillery M1942 Anti-Tank Gun;
(z.222) Russian Mortar M1937;
(z.223) Russian Service DP-64;
(z.224) Sabre Defence Industries XR40;
(z.225) Sabre Defence Industries XR37;
(z.226) Sage ML40 MARK 1;
(z.227) Sage Ace 37MM Launcher;
(z.228) Sage Ace 40MM Launcher;
(z.229) Sage Deuce 37MM Launcher;
(z.23) Sage Deuce 40MM Launcher;
(z.231) Schermuly 38MM Multi-Purpose Gun;
(z.232) Singapore Technologies Kinetics 40GL;
(z.233) Smith & Wesson 210/276;
(z.234) Smith & Wesson 276;
(z.235) Solothurn S18-100;
(z.236) Solothurn S18-1000;
(z.237) Spike’s Tactical 37MM Launcher STZ Havoc;
(z.238) Swiss Anti Tank Rifle Tankbusche 41;
(z.239) Swiss Arms GL5040;
(z.24) Swiss Arms GL5140;
(z.241) Swiss Arms GLG40;
(z.242) Taiwanese Grenade Launcher T85;
(z.243) Tarnow RGP-40;
(z.244) Tarnow GP40;
(z.245) Tarnow GS40;
(z.246) Truvelo SR20;
(z.247) Truvelo HSR 20;
(z.248) Truvelo CMS 20;
(z.249) US Mortar M2;
(z.25) US Mortar M1;
(z.251) US Mortar XM224E3;
(z.252) US Ordnance M6 37MM Gun;
(z.253) US Recoilless M18; and
(z.254) US Recoilless M20.

96 Any firearm capable of discharging a projectile with a muzzle energy greater than 10,000 joules — other than one referred to in item 12, 13, 14, 20, 22 or 30 of this Part or one designed exclusively for the purpose of neutralizing explosive devices — including the

(a) AAO 2000;
(b) Accuracy International AW50;
(c) Accuracy International AS50;
(d) Accuracy International AX;
(e) Accuracy International AX50;
(f) Alberta Tactical Rifle Big Bertha;
(g) Alberta Tactical Rifle ATSHL Prototype;
(h) Alberta Tactical Rifle ATSHL;
(i) Alberta Tactical Rifle AT50;
(j) Allied Armament Browning M2 Heavy Barrel;
(k) Allied Armament Browning M3 Aircraft;
(l) Alpimex APK 12.7;
(m) American Tactical Imports Omni Hybrid;
(n) AMP DSR 50;
(o) AMSD OM 50 Nemesis;
(p) Anzio Ironworks Anzio 50 CM1;
(q) Anzio Ironworks Anzio 50 Lightweight;
(r) Anzio Ironworks Anzio SS;
(s) Anzio Ironworks Anzio 50;
(t) Anzio Ironworks Anzio 14.5;
(u) Armalite AR-50;
(v) Armalite AR-50A1;
(w) Armtech BM50;
(x) Azerbaijani Sniper Rifle Istiglal IST 12.7;
(y) Azerbaijani Sniper Rifle Istiglal IST 14.5;
(z) Ballard SB500;
(z.001) Barnard GP;
(z.002) Barrett Firearms 99;
(z.003) BAT Machine EX;
(z.004) BCM Europearms Extreme;
(z.005) BCM Europearms MAAR Extreme;
(z.006) BCM Europearms STD Extreme;
(z.007) Bluegrass Armory Viper XL;
(z.008) Boys MARK 1*;
(z.009) Boys MARK 1;
(z.01) Bushmaster BA50;
(z.011) Cadex CDX-50 Tremor;
(z.012) Canstar Arms CS 50;
(z.013) Canstar Arms CS1 Prototype;
(z.014) Canstar Arms CS2 Prototype;
(z.015) Canstar Arms CS 50-2;
(z.016) Caracal CS50;
(z.017) China South Industries Group AMR-2;
(z.018) China South Industries Group LR2A;
(z.019) Christensen Arms Carbon One Ranger;
(z.02) Christensen Arms Carbon One Conquest;
(z.021) Christensen Arms Carbon Ranger;
(z.022) Cobb FA50;
(z.023) Cobb FA50(T);
(z.024) Cobb BA50;
(z.025) Croatian Service MACS M3;
(z.026) Croatian Service MACS M4;
(z.027) Czech Weapons CZW 127;
(z.028) Defence Industries Organization AM-50;
(z.029) Degtyarev ASVK;
(z.03) Denel NTW;
(z.031) Desert Tactical Arms HTI;
(z.032) Desert Tech HTI;
(z.033) DPMS A-15;
(z.034) DPMS A-15 Panther VRS Single Shot;
(z.035) EAA M93 Black Arrow;
(z.036) East Ridge/State Arms Gun Company Big Bertha;
(z.037) EDM Arms XM-107 Windrunner;
(z.038) EDM Arms SA-01 Windrunner;
(z.039) EDM Arms 96 Windrunner;
(z.04) Elite Machining Elite 50;
(z.041) Essential Arms Company J15;
(z.042) Essential Arms Company J15F;
(z.043) Evolution USA Phantom 3;
(z.044) FN Hecate 2;
(z.045) FN Nemesis;
(z.046) Fortmeier, Heinrich 2001;
(z.047) Fortmeier, Heinrich 2002;
(z.048) Gepard GM6 Lynx;
(z.049) German Anti-Tank Rifle PzB42;
(z.05) Gun Room Company Noreen ULR;
(z.051) Hagelberg FH50;
(z.052) Halo Arms HA50 FTR;
(z.053) Halo Arms HA50 LRR;
(z.054) Helenius RK97;
(z.055) Helenius RK99;
(z.056) Helenius RK99 MARK 1;
(z.057) IOF Vidhwansak;
(z.058) Jard J50;
(z.059) Jard J51;
(z.06) JRS 510;
(z.061) Karta Tool Frenchy 1 Prototype;
(z.062) Kovrov SVN-98;
(z.063) LAR Manufacturing Grizzly Big Boar;
(z.064) LAR Manufacturing Grizzly T-50;
(z.065) McBros 50 BMG Benchrest;
(z.066) McBros 50 BMG Sporter;
(z.067) McBros 50 BMG Tactical;
(z.068) McMillan 50 BMG Benchrest;
(z.069) McMillan Brothers 50 BMG Benchrest;
(z.07) McMillan Brothers 50 BMG Sporter;
(z.071) McMillan Brothers 50 BMG Tactical;
(z.072) McMillan Brothers TAC-50;
(z.073) McMillan TAC-50;
(z.074) McMillan TAC-416;
(z.075) MG Arms Behemoth;
(z.076) Mitchells Mausers M93 Black Arrow Target;
(z.077) Modulo Masterpiece Wizard Extreme Long Range Match;
(z.078) Noreen Firearms Noreen ULR;
(z.079) Noreen Firearms Noreen ULR Extreme;
(z.08) Norinco JS 05;
(z.081) Norinco CSLR5;
(z.082) Northwest Imports Browning M2 Heavy Barrel;
(z.083) Odessa Patriot 50;
(z.084) Omni Windrunner;
(z.085) PGM Precision Hecate 2;
(z.086) Phase 5 Tactical P5T15;
(z.087) Pietsch P B 50 Canadian;
(z.088) PMP NTW;
(z.089) Poly Technologies M99;
(z.09) Poly Technologies M99B;
(z.091) Prairie Gun Works LRT3REP;
(z.092) Prairie Gun Works LRT3SS;
(z.093) Prairie Gun Works LRT50;
(z.094) RAD M650 SLAMR;
(z.095) RAD M614;
(z.096) Ramo 600;
(z.097) Ramo 650;
(z.098) Rib Mountain Arms 92;
(z.099) Robar RC-50;
(z.1) RPA Quadlock;
(z.101) RPA Rangemaster 50;
(z.102) Russian Anti-Tank Rifle PTRS41;
(z.103) Russian Anti-Tank Rifle PTRD41;
(z.104) Russian Anti-Tank Rifle PTRR39;
(z.105) Russian Anti-Tank Rifle PTRSh;
(z.106) Safety Harbor Firearms SHF/R50;
(z.107) Safety Harbor Firearms Ultra Mag 50;
(z.108) Safety Harbor Firearms SHF/S50;
(z.109) Saxonia Big Valve M2;
(z.11) Semtecx Single Shot Pistol;
(z.111) Serbu BFG-50;
(z.112) Serbu BFG-50A;
(z.113) Serbu RN-50;
(z.114) Sero GM6 Lynx;
(z.115) SIG Sauer SIG 50;
(z.116) SMOS Rogue-50;
(z.117) SMOS Rogue-SS;
(z.118) Spider Firearms Ferret 50;
(z.119) St George Arms Leader 50 A1;
(z.12) State Arms Gun Company Rebel;
(z.121) State Arms Gun Company Mosquito;
(z.122) State Arms Gun Company Shorty;
(z.123) State Arms Gun Company Competitor 2000;
(z.124) Steyr-Mannlicher HS50;
(z.125) Steyr-Mannlicher HS50M1;
(z.126) Steyr-Mannlicher HS460;
(z.127) Stoner SR-50;
(z.128) Swiss Arms SAN511;
(z.129) Tactical Machining TM-SS;
(z.13) Tarnow WKW;
(z.131) Tasko 7ET3;
(z.132) Tech Designs Kodiak;
(z.133) Thompson Machine ARSSL;
(z.134) Thor Global Defense Group M96 Windrunner Series;
(z.135) TNW Browning M2 Heavy Barrel;
(z.136) Triple Action Thunder 50;
(z.137) Truvelo CMS 12.7;
(z.138) Truvelo CMS 14.5;
(z.139) Truvelo SR50;
(z.14) Ursus Firearms Kodiak;
(z.141) Valkyrie Arms Browning M2 Heavy Barrel;
(z.142) VM Hy-Tech VM50;
(z.143) Vulcan Armament V50SS;
(z.144) Watsons Weapons 50;
(z.145) Zastava M93;
(z.146) Zastava Arms M93 Black Arrow;
(z.147) Zastava Europe M93;
(z.148) ZVI OP96; and
(z.149) ZVI OP99.

...
SOR/2015-213, s. 3.

Regs

Where a weapon can be quickly and readily converted to an automatic gun, then that weapon must fall within the definition of "prohibited weapon."[1] However, a gun frame or receiver, inoperable by itself because the selector button was welded to prevent it firing automatically, is not a prohibited weapon, because the modification required to remove the weld required specialized knowledge and considerable effort.[2]

  1. R v Hasselwander, 1993 CanLII 90 (SCC), [1993] 2 SCR 398
  2. R v Rogan, (1994), 19 Alta LR (3d) 90(*no CanLII links)

Photos of Prescribed Prohibited Firearms

AK-47 assault rifle with curved magazine and wooden stock facing left
AK-47, Fires a 7.62×39mm M43 round. [prohibited firearm]
Colt-Thompson Submachine Gun Model of 1921. [prohibited firearm]
Taser [prohibited device]
The SG 550 service rifle [prohibited firearm]
The HK33 SG1 with a Trijicon ACOG optical sight [prohibited firearm]
MP5 A3. This is the retractable buttstock version of the MP5. A submachine gun by Heckler & Koch, built 1976. [prohibited firearm]
Daewoo Precision Industries USAS-12 automatic shotgun. [prohibited firearm]
Steyr AUG A1 with 508 mm (20.0 in) barrel [prohibited firearm]
Franchi SPAS-15 [prohibited firearm]
BM 59 battle rifle [prohibited firearm]
Uzi [prohibited firearm]

Definition of Prohibited Device and Ammunition

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2016. (Rev. # 79508)

Prohibited Device

See also: Definition of Weapons
Definitions

s. 84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
...
"prohibited device" means

(a) any component or part of a weapon, or any accessory for use with a weapon, that is prescribed to be a prohibited device,
(b) a handgun barrel that is equal to or less than 105 mm in length, but does not include any such handgun barrel that is prescribed, where the handgun barrel is for use in international sporting competitions governed by the rules of the International Shooting Union,
(c) a device or contrivance designed or intended to muffle or stop the sound or report of a firearm,
(d) a cartridge magazine that is prescribed to be a prohibited device, or
(e) a replica firearm;

...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84


The regulation state this about prohibited devices:

5 The components and parts of weapons, accessories, and cartridge magazines listed in Part 4 of the schedule are prohibited devices for the purposes of paragraphs (a) and (d) of the definition “prohibited device” in subsection 84(1) of the Criminal Code.

Regs

Part 4 of the Regulations state:

PART 4

Prohibited Devices
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 9

1 Any electrical or mechanical device that is designed or adapted to operate the trigger mechanism of a semi-automatic firearm for the purpose of causing the firearm to discharge cartridges in rapid succession.
2 Any rifle, shotgun or carbine stock of the type known as the “bull-pup” design[59], being a stock that, when combined with a firearm, reduces the overall length of the firearm such that a substantial part of the reloading action or the magazine-well is located behind the trigger of the firearm when it is held in the normal firing position.

Former Cartridge Magazine Control Regulations

3 (1) Any cartridge magazine

(a) that is capable of containing more than five cartridges of the type for which the magazine was originally designed and that is designed or manufactured for use in
(i) a semi-automatic handgun that is not commonly available in Canada,
(ii) a semi-automatic firearm other than a semi-automatic handgun,
(iii) an automatic firearm whether or not it has been altered to discharge only one projectile with one pressure of the trigger,
(iv) the firearms of the designs commonly known as the Ingram M10[60] and M11 pistols[61], and any variants or modified versions of them, including the Cobray M10[62] and M11 pistols[63], the RPB M10, M11 and SM11 pistols and the SWD M10, M11, SM10 and SM11 pistols,
(v) the firearm of the design commonly known as the Partisan Avenger Auto Pistol, and any variant or modified version of it, or
(vi) the firearm of the design commonly known as the UZI pistol[64], and any variant or modified version of it, including the Micro-UZI pistol[65]; or
(b) that is capable of containing more than 10 cartridges of the type for which the magazine was originally designed and that is designed or manufactured for use in a semi-automatic handgun that is commonly available in Canada.

(2) Paragraph (1)(a) does not include any cartridge magazine that

(a) was originally designed or manufactured for use in a firearm that
(i) is chambered for, or designed to use, rimfire cartridges,
(ii) is a rifle of the type commonly known as the “Lee Enfield” rifle[66], where the magazine is capable of containing not more than 10 cartridges of the type for which the magazine was originally designed, or
(iii) is commonly known as the U.S. Rifle M1 (Garand)[67] including the Beretta M1 Garand rifle, the Breda M1 Garand rifle and the Springfield Armoury M1 Garand rifle;
(b) is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for use in a firearm that
(i) is commonly known as the Charlton Rifle[68],
(ii) is commonly known as the Farquhar-Hill Rifle[69], or
(iii) is commonly known as the Huot Automatic Rifle[70];
(c) is of the “drum” type, is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for use in a firearm commonly known as
(i) the .303 in. Lewis Mark 1 machine-gun[71], or any variant or modified version of it, including the Lewis Mark 1*, Mark 2, Mark 2*, Mark 3, Mark 4, Lewis SS and .30 in. Savage-Lewis,
(ii) the .303 in. Vickers Mark 1 machine-gun[72], or any variant or modified version of it, including the Mark 1*, Mark 2, Mark 2*, Mark 3, Mark 4, Mark 4B, Mark 5, Mark 6, Mark 6* and Mark 7, or
(iii) the Bren Light machine-gun[73], or any variant or modified version of it, including the Mark 1, Mark 2, Mark 2/1, Mark 3 and Mark 4;
(d) is of the “metallic-strip” type, is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for use in conjunction with the firearm known as the Hotchkiss machine-gun[74], Model 1895 or Model 1897, or any variant or modified version of it, including the Hotchkiss machine-gun, Model 1900, Model 1909, Model 1914 and Model 1917, and the Hotchkiss machine-gun (Enfield), Number 2, Mark 1 and Mark 1*;
(e) is of the “saddle-drum” type (doppeltrommel or satteltrommel)[75], is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for use in the automatic firearms known as the MG-13, MG-15, MG-17, MG-34, T6-200 or T6-220, or any variant or modified version of it; or
(f) is of the “belt” type consisting of a fabric or metal belt, is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for the purpose of feeding cartridges into a automatic firearm of a type that was in existence before 1945.

(3) Paragraph (1)(b) does not include any cartridge magazine that

(a) is of the “snail-drum” type (schneckentrommel) that was originally designed or manufactured for use in a firearm that is a handgun known as the Parabellum-Pistol, System Borchardt-Luger, Model 1900, or “Luger”, or any variant or modified version of it, including the Model 1902, Model 1904 (Marine), Model 1904/06 (Marine), Model 1904/08 (Marine), Model 1906, Model 1908 and Model 1908 (Artillery) pistols;
(b) was originally designed or manufactured for use in a firearm that is a semi-automatic handgun, where the magazine was manufactured before 1910;
(c) was originally designed or manufactured as an integral part of the firearm known as the Mauser Selbstladepistole C/96 (“broomhandle”)[76], or any variant or modified version of it, including the Model 1895, Model 1896, Model 1902, Model 1905, Model 1912, Model 1915, Model 1930, Model 1931, M711 and M712; or
(d) was originally designed or manufactured for use in the semi-automatic firearm that is a handgun known as the Webley and Scott Self-Loading Pistol[77], Model 1912 or Model 1915.

(4) A cartridge magazine described in subsection (1) that has been altered or re-manufactured so that it is not capable of containing more than five or ten cartridges, as the case may be, of the type for which it was originally designed is not a prohibited device as prescribed by that subsection if the modification to the magazine cannot be easily removed and the magazine cannot be easily further altered so that it is so capable of containing more than five or ten cartridges, as the case may be.
(5) For the purposes of subsection (4), altering or re-manufacturing a cartridge magazine includes

(a) the indentation of its casing by forging, casting, swaging or impressing;
(b) in the case of a cartridge magazine with a steel or aluminum casing, the insertion and attachment of a plug, sleeve, rod, pin, flange or similar device, made of steel or aluminum, as the case may be, or of a similar material, to the inner surface of its casing by welding, brazing or any other similar method; or
(c) in the case of a cartridge magazine with a casing made of a material other than steel or aluminum, the attachment of a plug, sleeve, rod, pin, flange or similar device, made of steel or of a material similar to that of the magazine casing, to the inner surface of its casing by welding, brazing or any other similar method or by applying a permanent adhesive substance, such as a cement or an epoxy or other glue.

...

SOR/2015-213, s. 3.

Regs

A magazine casing with a 30-round capacity and can be used in an AR15 rifle can be a "prohibited device."[1]

  1. R v Cancade, 2011 BCCA 105 (CanLII), 302 BCAC 134, per Hall JA

Illustrations

Suppressors (Silencers) [s. 84(c)]
Magazine > 5 cartridges for certain semi-automatics [Reg Pt 4, s. 3(1)(a)]
Bump stock [Reg Pt 4, s. 1]

Ammunition

Definitions

84 (1) In this Part [Pt. III – Firearms and Other Weapons (ss. 84 to 117.15)],
“ammunition” means a cartridge containing a projectile designed to be discharged from a firearm and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a caseless cartridge and a shot shell;
...
"cartridge magazine" means a device or container from which ammunition may be fed into the firing chamber of a firearm; (chargeur)
...
"prohibited ammunition" means ammunition, or a projectile of any kind, that is prescribed to be prohibited ammunition; (munitions prohibées)
...
[omitted (2), (3), (3.1), (4), (5) and (6)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 84; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 185(F), 186; 1991, c. 40, s. 2; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 1998, c. 30, s. 16; 2003, c. 8, s. 2; 2008, c. 6, s. 2; 2009, c. 22, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 45, c. 27, s. 18.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 84(1)

Part 5 of the Regulations state:

6 The ammunition and projectiles listed in Part 5 of the schedule are prohibited ammunition for the purposes of the definition “prohibited ammunition” in subsection 84(1) [firearms and other weapons — definitions] of the Criminal Code.

PART 5

Prohibited Ammunition
Former Prohibited Weapons Order, No 10

1 Any cartridge that is capable of being discharged from a commonly available semi-automatic handgun or revolver and that is manufactured or assembled with a projectile that is designed, manufactured or altered so as to be capable of penetrating body armour, including KTW, THV and 5.7 x 28 mm P-90 cartridges.

2 Any projectile that is designed, manufactured or altered to ignite on impact, where the projectile is designed for use in or in conjunction with a cartridge and does not exceed 15 mm in diameter.

3 Any projectile that is designed, manufactured or altered so as to explode on impact, where the projectile is designed for use in or in conjunction with a cartridge and does not exceed 15 mm in diameter.

4 Any cartridge that is capable of being discharged from a shotgun and that contains projectiles known as “fléchettes” or any similar projectiles.

SOR/2015-213, s. 3.

Regs

Evidence

Proof that the ammunition was capable of being discharged is usually done by way of the actual discharging of at least one cartridge. However, it can also be proven by way of opinion from an expert upon examination of the cartridge and the context of the finding of the cartridge. [1]

There generally is no need for expert evidence to prove that certain items fit the definition of ammunition. [2]The officer's observational description of the items as bullets should be sufficient.[3]

  1. R v Wong, 2012 ONCA 432 (CanLII), 293 OAC 30, per Weiler JA, at paras 38 to 40
  2. R v Singh, 2004 BCCA 428 (CanLII), 188 CCC (3d) 129, per Hall JA, at paras 14 to 15
  3. Singh, ibid.

Common Sizes of Ammunition (Caliber and Gauge)

Caliber
Imperial Caliber .172 .204 .221 .22 .224 .243 .25 .26 .27 .284 .308 .311 .312 .323 .338 .355 .356 .357 .40 .44 .45 .50
Metric Caliber 4 mm 5 mm 5.45 mm 5.6 mm 5.7 mm 6 mm 6.35 mm 6.5 mm 6.8 mm 7 mm 7.62 mm 7.9 mm 7.94 mm 8 mm 8.6 mm 9 mm 9.3 mm 9.5 mm 10 mm 10.9 mm 11.43 mm 12.7 mm
Gauge
1 Pound / gauge = weight of lead sphere Caliber of lead sphere is then measured
gauge pounds mm inches
0.25 4 67.34 2.651
0.5 2 53.45 2.103
0.75 1 / 1 46.70 1.838
1 1 42.42 1.669
1.5 2 / 3 37.05 1.459
2 1 / 2 33.67 1.326
3 1 / 3 29.41 1.158
4 1 / 4 26.72 1.052
5 1 / 5 24.80 0.976
6 1 / 6 23.35 0.919
6.278 1 / 6.278 23.00 0.906
7 1 / 7 22.18 0.873
8 1 / 8 21.21 0.835
9 1 / 9 20.39 0.803
10 1 / 10 19.69 0.775
11 1 / 11 19.07 0.751
12 1 / 12 18.53 0.729
13 1 / 13 18.04 0.710
14 1 / 14 17.60 0.693
15 1 / 15 17.21 0.677
16 1 / 16 16.83 0.663
17 1 / 17 16.50 0.650
18 1 / 18 16.19 0.637
20 1 / 20 15.63 0.615
22 1 / 22 15.13 0.596
24 1 / 24 14.70 0.579
26 1 / 26 14.31 0.564
28 1 / 28 13.97 0.550
32 1 / 32 13.36 0.526
36 1 / 36 12.85 0.506
40 1 / 40 12.40 0.488
67.62 1 / 67.62 10.41 0.410
Table of American standard birdshot size
Size Caliber Pellets/10 g lead Pellets/10 g steel
FF 5.84 mm (.230") 8 12
F 5.59 mm (.220") 10 14
TT 5.33 mm (.210") 11 16
T 5.08 mm (.200") 13 19
BBB 4.83 mm (.190") 15 22
BB 4.57 mm (.180") 18 25
B 4.32 mm (.170") 21 30
1 4.06 mm (.160") 25 36
2 3.81 mm (.150") 30 44
3 3.56 mm (.140") 37 54
4 3.30 mm (.130") 47 68
5 3.05 mm (.120") 59 86
6 2.79 mm (.110") 78 112
7 2.41 mm (.100") 120 174
8 2.29 mm (.090") 140 202
9 2.03 mm (.080") 201 290
Table of buckshot size
Size Caliber Pellets/10 g lead
000 or LG ("triple-aught") 9.1 mm (.36") 2.2
00 or SG ("double-aught") 8.4 mm (.33") 2.9
0 ("one-aught") 8.1 mm (.32") 3.1
1 7.6 mm (.30") 3.8
2 or SSG 6.9 mm (.27") 5.2
3 6.4 mm (.25") 6.6
4 6.1 mm (.24") 7.4

Illustrations

7.62×51mm NATO Orange-tipped Full metal jacket bullet tracer ammunition in a 5-round stripper clip
Steyr-Mannlicher ACR flechette cartridge
.270 ammunition. Left to right:
100-grain (6.5 g) – hollow point
115-grain (7.5 g) – FMJBT
130-grain (8.4 g) – soft point
150-grain (9.7 g) – round nose

Definition of Judicial Officers

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions and Criminal Courts

Courts

See also: Criminal Courts

"Provincial Court Judge"

2
...
"provincial court judge" means a person appointed or authorized to act by or pursuant to an Act of the legislature of a province, by whatever title that person may be designated, who has the power and authority of two or more justices of the peace and includes the lawful deputy of that person;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Definitions

487.04 In this section and in sections 487.05 to 487.0911,
...
"provincial court judge", in relation to a young person, includes a youth justice court judge within the meaning of subsection 2(1) of the Youth Criminal Justice Act; (juge de la cour provinciale)
...
1995, c. 27, s. 1; 1998, c. 37, s. 15; 2001, c. 41, s. 17; 2002, c. 1, s. 175; 2005, c. 25, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 5, 9; 2007, c. 22, ss. 2, 8, 47; 2008, c. 6, ss. 35, 63; 2009, c. 22, s. 16; 2010, c. 3, s. 6, c. 17, s. 3; 2012, c. 1, s. 30; 2013, c. 9, s. 16, c. 13, s. 8; 2014, c. 17, s. 13, c. 25, s. 23; 2015, c. 20, s. 23; 2018, c. 16, s. 216, c. 21, s. 18; 2019, c. 13, s. 152; 2019, c. 25, s. 196.1

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.04

Section 111 defines "provincial court judge" for the purpose of s. 111, 112, 117.011 and 117.012 as:

111
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9) and (10)]

Definition of “provincial court judge”

(11) In this section and sections 112 [revocation of prohibition order under s. 111(5)], 117.011 [weapon prohibition order for associate of prohibited person] and 117.012 [revocation of order under s. 117.011], "provincial court judge" means a provincial court judge having jurisdiction in the territorial division where the person against whom the application for an order was brought resides.
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 111; 1991, c. 40, s. 24; 1995, c. 39, s. 139.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 111(11)

"Justice"


2
...
"justice" means a justice of the peace or a provincial court judge, and includes two or more justices where two or more justices are, by law, required to act or, by law, act or have jurisdiction;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Section 188

Section 188 defines "Chief Justice" for the purpose of s. 188:

188
[omitted (1) and (2)]
(3) [Repealed, 1993, c. 40, s. 8]

Definition of “Chief Justice”

(4) In this section [emergency wiretaps], "Chief Justice" means

(a) in the Province of Ontario, the Chief Justice of the Ontario Court;
(b) in the Province of Quebec, the Chief Justice of the Superior Court;
(c) in the Provinces of Nova Scotia and British Columbia, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court;
(d) in the Provinces of New Brunswick, Manitoba, Saskatchewan and Alberta, the Chief Justice of the Court of Queen’s Bench;
(e) in the Provinces of Prince Edward Island and Newfoundland, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Trial Division; and
(f) in Yukon, the Northwest Territories and Nunavut, the senior judge within the meaning of subsection 22(3) of the Judges Act.

[omitted (5) and (6)]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 188(4)

"Judge"

Section 164

Section 164 defines "judge" for the purpose of s. 164 as:

164
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7)]
(8) In this section,
...
"judge" means a judge of a court;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 164; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 16, s. 3, c. 17, s. 9; 1992, c. 1, s. 58, c. 51, s. 34; 1993, c. 46, s. 3; 1997, c. 18, s. 5; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 27; 2002, c. 7, s. 139, c. 13, s. 6; 2005, c. 32, s. 8; 2014, c. 25, s. 6.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 164(8)


Defined terms: "court" (s. 164(8))

Section 320

Section 320 defines "judge" for the purpose of s. 320 as:

320
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7)]
(8) In this section, ...
"judge" means a judge of a court.
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 320; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 16, s. 4, c. 17, s. 11; 1992, c. 1, s. 58, c. 51, s. 36; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 29; 2002, c. 7, s. 142.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 320

Part XXI.2

Section 462.3 defines "judge" for the purpose of Part XII.2 (s. 462.3 to 462.5) as:

462.3 (1) In this Part [Pt. XII.2 – Proceeds of Crime (ss. 462.3 to 462.5)],
...
"judge" means a judge as defined in section 552 [definitions - judges] or a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction;

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 462.3(1)

Sections 487.011 to 487.0199

Definitions

487.011 The following definitions apply in this section and in sections 487.012 to 487.0199 [preservation and production orders relating to data].
...
"judge" means a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction or a judge of the Court of Quebec.
...
2004, c. 3, s. 7; 2014, c. 31, s. 20.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.011

Sections 488.1

Section 488.1 defines "judge" for the purpose of s.488.1 as:

488.1 (1) In this section,
...
"judge" means a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the province where the seizure was made;

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 488.1(1)

Section 490.2

Section 490.2 defines "judge" for the purpose of s. 490.2, 490.5, and 490.8 as:

490.2
[omitted (1), (2), (3), (4) and (4.1)]

Definition of “judge”

(5) In this section and sections 490.5 and 490.8, "judge" means a judge as defined in section 552 [definitions - judges] or a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction.
1997, c. 23, s. 15; 2001, c. 32, s. 31; 2007, c. 13, s. 9; 2017, c. 7, s. 65.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 290.2(5)

Section 492.1(8)

492.1
...

Definitions

(8) The following definitions apply in this section.
...
"judge" means a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction or a judge of the Court of Quebec. ...
1993, c. 40, s. 18; 1999, c. 5, s. 18; 2014, c. 31, s. 23; 2019, c. 25, s. 207.
[annotation(s) added]

Section 492.2

Part XVI (s. 493 to 529.5)

Section 493 defines "judge" for the purpose of Part XVI (compelling attendance and interim release) as:

493 In this Part [Pt. XVI – Compelling Appearance of an Accused Before a Justice and Interim Release (ss. 493 to 529.5)], ...
"judge" means

(a) in the Province of Ontario, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the Province,
(b) in the Province of Quebec, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the province or three judges of the Court of Quebec,
(c) [Repealed, 1992, c. 51, s. 37]
(d) in the Provinces of Nova Scotia, New Brunswick, Manitoba, British Columbia, Prince Edward Island, Saskatchewan, Alberta and Newfoundland and Labrador, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the Province,
(e) in Yukon and the Northwest Territories, a judge of the Supreme Court, and
(f) in Nunavut, a judge of the Nunavut Court of Justice;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 493; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 16, s. 5, c. 17, s. 12; 1992, c. 51, s. 37; 1994, c. 44, s. 39; 1999, c. 3, s. 30; 2002, c. 7, s. 143; 2015, c. 3, s. 51; 2019, c. 25, s. 209.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 493

Part XIX

Under Part XIX (s. 552 to 573.2) concerning indictable offences in trial without a jury, s. 552 defines "judge":

552 In this Part [Pt. XIX – Indictable Offences – Trial Without a Jury (ss. 552 to 572)],
...
"judge" means,

(a) in the Province of Ontario, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the Province,
(b) in the Province of Quebec, a judge of the Court of Quebec,
(c) in the Province of Nova Scotia, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the Province,
(d) in the Province of New Brunswick, a judge of the Court of Queen’s Bench,
(e) in the Province of British Columbia, the Chief Justice or a puisne judge of the Supreme Court,
(f) in the Province of Prince Edward Island, a judge of the Supreme Court,
(g) in the Province of Manitoba, the Chief Justice or a puisne judge of the Court of Queen’s Bench,
(h) in the Provinces of Saskatchewan and Alberta, a judge of the superior court of criminal jurisdiction of the province,
(h.1) in the Province of Newfoundland and Labrador, a judge of the Trial Division of the Supreme Court,
(i) in Yukon and the Northwest Territories, a judge of the Supreme Court, and
(j) in Nunavut, a judge of the Nunavut Court of Justice.

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 552; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 103, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 16, s. 6, c. 17, s. 13; 1992, c. 51, s. 38; 1999, c. 3, s. 36; 2002, c. 7, s. 145; 2015, c. 3, s. 53.

CCC


Note up: 552

Misc

Definitions

118 In this Part [Pt. IV – Offences Against the Administration of Law and Justice (ss. 118 to 149)],
"evidence" or statement" means an assertion of fact, opinion, belief or knowledge, whether material or not and whether admissible or not; (témoignage, déposition ou déclaration)

"government" means

(a) the Government of Canada,
(b) the government of a province, or
(c) Her Majesty in right of Canada or a province; (gouvernement)

"judicial proceeding" means a proceeding

(a) in or under the authority of a court of justice,
(b) before the Senate or House of Commons or a committee of the Senate or House of Commons, or before a legislative council, legislative assembly or house of assembly or a committee thereof that is authorized by law to administer an oath,
(c) before a court, judge, justice, provincial court judge or coroner,
(d) before an arbitrator or umpire, or a person or body of persons authorized by law to make an inquiry and take evidence therein under oath, or
(e) before a tribunal by which a legal right or legal liability may be established,
whether or not the proceeding is invalid for want of jurisdiction or for any other reason; (procédure judiciaire)


"office" includes

(a) an office or appointment under the government,
(b) a civil or military commission, and
(c) a position or an employment in a public department; (charge ou emploi)

"official" means a person who

(a) holds an office, or
(b) is appointed or elected to discharge a public duty; (fonctionnaire)

"witness" means a person who gives evidence orally under oath or by affidavit in a judicial proceeding, whether or not he is competent to be a witness, and includes a child of tender years who gives evidence but does not give it under oath, because, in the opinion of the person presiding, the child does not understand the nature of an oath. (témoin)
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 118; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 15, 203; 2007, c. 13, s. 2.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 118

See Also

Definition of Crown, Prosecutor and Attorney General

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2023. (Rev. # 79508)

Crown

See also: Role of the Crown
See also: disclosure

The Crown includes victim services. However, disclosure obligations are not implicated in the records of victim services as the prosecutor does not have knowledge or control over those materials.[1]

  1. R v HT, 2008 NLTD 63 (CanLII), 850 APR 59, per Handrigan J

Prosecutor

Section 2 of the Code defines "prosecutor":

2
...
“prosecutor” means the Attorney General or, where the Attorney General does not intervene, means the person who institutes proceedings to which this Act applies, and includes counsel acting on behalf of either of them;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


Defined terms: "Attorney General" (s. 2)

Reference to prosecutor under Part XXVII (Summary Convictions):

785
...
"prosecutor" means the Attorney General or, where the Attorney General does not intervene, the informant, and includes counsel or an agent acting on behalf of either of them;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 785; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 170, 203; 1992, c. 1, s. 58; 1995, c. 22, s. 7, c. 39, s. 156; 1996, c. 19, s. 76; 1999, c. 25, s. 23(Preamble); 2002, c. 13, s. 78; 2006, c. 14, s. 7; 2013, c. 11, s. 4.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 785


Defined terms: "Attorney General" (s. 2)

Police Officer as Prosecutor

A police officer may not act as prosecutor of a straight indictable offences.[1] A police officer may however act as agent for the Attorney General in reporting the Crown's election, including an election to proceed by indictment.[2]

The prosecution of a summary offence by a police officer does not violate s. 11(d) of the Charter.[3]

  1. R v Edmunds, 1981 CanLII 173 (SCC), [1981] 1 SCR 233, per McIntyre J (4:1)
  2. R v Parsons, 1984 CanLII 3584 (NL CA), 14 CCC (3d) 490, per Mifflin JA (3:0)
  3. R v White, 1988 CanLII 7143 (NL CA), 41 CCC (3d) 236, per Marshall JA (5:0) ("...police may prosecute summary conviction offences since this practice is sanctioned by the Code and has been found not to offend the Charter.")

The Crown Attorney

The Crown Attorney is invested with the authority to conduct prosecutions on behalf of the Director of Public Prosecutions for the province or Federal government.[1]

The choice of who is to prosecute an accused person is part of the Attorney General's core prosecutorial discretion and is not reviewable short of an abuse of process. [2]

The Crown's role is to "assistant to the Court in the furtherance of justice, and not to act as counsel for any particular person or party."[3]

  1. BC: Crown Counsel Act, RSBC 1996, c 87
    MB: Crown Attorneys Act, CCSM c C330
    ONT: Crown Attorneys Act, RSO 1990, c C.49
    QC: An Act respecting the director of Criminal and Penal Prosecutions, RSQ, c D-9.1.1
    NB: An Act Respecting the Role of the Attorney General, RSNB 2011, c 116
    NS: Public Prosecutions Act, SNS 1990, c 21
    FED: Director of Public Prosecutions Act, SC 2006, c 9, s 121
  2. R v Hundert, 2010 ONSC 6759 (CanLII), OJ No 5300, per Kelly J, at paras 39 to 40
  3. R v Boucher, 1954 CanLII 3 (SCC), [1955] SCR 16, per Locke J, at p. 25

The Attorney General

The Attorney General's role is to represent the public interest in criminal prosecutions.[1]

The AG derives its power from its role as advisor to the Crown.[2]

Independence

Under the authority of the Constitution, the AG is expected to act independently from partisan concerns when exercising the authority over prosecutions.[3] One of their key roles is to start, manage and terminate prosecutions, which requires that they will act without political pressures.[4]

In the UK, the Attorney General never sits in cabinet, however, is Canada the AG will always be part of government. As a result, the independence of prosecutions is even more important than in the UK.[5]

Division of Prosecutions

Only Criminal charges under the Criminal Code may be prosecuted by the Attorney General of the provincial government. Violations of other federal acts, such as the food and drug act, may be prosecuted by the Attorney general of Canada.[6]

For the purposes of all federal acts involving criminal law except those in the Criminal Code, the "Attorney General" refers to the Attorney General of Canada and their agents. The provincial attorney general is excluded from having authority over such matters.[7]

The Attorney General of Canada may prosecute conspiracy charges under the Criminal Code. [8]

Where there is an absence of involvement of federal prosecutors, there can be authority for the provincial Attorney General to prosecute.[9]

2 In this Act,
...

Attorney General
(a) with respect to proceedings to which this Act applies, means the Attorney General or Solicitor General of the province in which those proceedings are taken and includes his or her lawful deputy or, if those proceedings are referred to in subsection 2.3(1), the Attorney General of Canada or the Attorney General or Solicitor General of the province in which those proceedings are taken and includes the lawful deputy of any of them,
(b) means the Attorney General of Canada and includes his or her lawful deputy with respect to
(i) Yukon, the Northwest Territories and Nunavut, or
(ii) proceedings commenced at the instance of the Government of Canada and conducted by or on behalf of that Government in respect of an offence under any Act of Parliament — other than this Act or the Canada Elections Act — or any regulation made under such an Act, and
(c) means the Director of Public Prosecutions appointed under subsection 3(1) of the Director of Public Prosecutions Act with respect to proceedings in relation to an offence under the Canada Elections Act; (procureur général)

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Concurrent jurisdiction

2.3 (1) The proceedings for the purposes of paragraph (a) of the definition Attorney General in section 2 are

(a) proceedings in relation to an offence under subsection 7(2.01) [extraterritorial offences in relation to cultural property], (2.3)[space station – Canadian crew members] or (2.31) [space station – crew members of partner states] or section 57 [forgery of or uttering forged passport], 58 [fraudulent use of certificate of citizenship], 83.12 [offences — freezing of property, disclosure or audit], 103 [importing or exporting firearms knowing it is unauthorized], 104 [unauthorized importing or exporting], 121.1 [selling, etc., of tobacco products and raw leaf tobacco], 380 [fraud], 382 [manipulating stock exchange], 382.1 [insider trading], 400 [false prospectus], 424.1 [threat against United Nations or associated personnel], 431.1 [attack on premises, accommodation or transport of United Nations or associated personnel], 467.11 [participation in activities of criminal organization] or 467.111 [recruitment of members by a criminal organization] or in relation to any terrorism offence;
(b) proceedings in relation to an offence against a member of United Nations personnel or associated personnel under section 235 [punishment for murder – max and min penalties], 236 [manslaughter], 266 to 269 [forms of assault], 269.1 [torture], 271 to 273 [sexual assault-related offences], 279 [kidnapping and forcible confinement] or 279.1 [hostage taking];
(c) proceedings in relation to an offence referred to in subsection 7(3.71) [extraterritorial offences re UN or associated personnel] or in relation to an offence referred to in paragraph (a) of the definition terrorist activity in subsection 83.01(1) [terrorism offences – definitions] if the act or omission constituting the offence was committed outside Canada and is deemed under any of subsections 7(2) [extraterritorial offences re aviation], (2.1) to (2.21), (3) , (3.1) , (3.72) [extraterritorial offences re explosives] and (3.73) [extraterritorial offences re financing of terrorism] to have been committed in Canada;
(d) proceedings in relation to an offence if the act or omission constituting the offence is a terrorist activity referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition terrorist activity in subsection 83.01(1) and was committed outside Canada and is deemed by virtue of subsection 7(3.74) [extraterritorial offences re party to terrorism] or (3.75) [extraterritorial offences re terrorist activities] to have been committed in Canada;
(e) a proceeding in relation to an offence under section 811 [breach of recognizance] that arises out of a breach of a recognizance made under section 810.01 [peace bond – organized crime] or 810.011 [terror peace bond], if he or she has given consent to the information referred to in those sections; and
(f) proceedings under section 83.13 [seizure and restraint of assets re terrorism offences], 83.14 [forfeiture of property re terrorism offences], 83.222 [counselling commission of terrorism offence – warrant of seizure], 83.223 or 83.3 [terrorism recognizance].
For greater certainty — Attorney General of Canada

(2) For greater certainty, the Attorney General of Canada or his or her lawful deputy may, in respect of an offence referred to in subsection (1) or an offence under any Act of Parliament — other than this Act or the Canada Elections Act — or any regulation made under such an Act, exercise all the powers and perform all the duties and functions assigned to the Attorney General by or under this Act, and those powers include the power to commence and to conduct

(a) a proceeding for conspiring or attempting to commit such an offence or for being an accessory after the fact or counselling a person to be a party to such an offence;
(b) a proceeding in relation to a criminal organization offence that arises out of conduct that relates, in whole or in part, to any offence for which he or she has the power to commence and to conduct a proceeding;
(c) a proceeding in relation to an offence referred to in section 354 [possession of stolen property], 355.2 [trafficking in property obtained by crime], 355.4 [possession of property obtained by crime — trafficking] or 462.31 [money laundering] that arises out of conduct that relates, in whole or in part, to any offence for which he or she has the power to commence and to conduct a proceeding or out of any act or omission that, if it had occurred in Canada, would have constituted such an offence;
(d) a proceeding for the breach of any court order made in the course of a proceeding commenced or conducted by him or her;
(e) a proceeding for the failure to comply with any condition associated with the release of a person by a peace officer or other competent authority — including a condition to appear at a specified time and place — in relation to any offence for which he or she has the power to commence and to conduct a proceeding; and
(f) any ancillary proceedings in relation to any offence for which he or she has the power to commence and to conduct a proceeding.
For greater certainty — Director of Public Prosecutions

(3) For greater certainty, in respect of an offence under the Canada Elections Act, the Director of Public Prosecutions, subject to the Director of Public Prosecutions Act, exercises the powers and performs the duties and functions of the Attorney General of Canada referred to in subsection (2).

2019, c. 25, s. 2; 2019, c. 25, s. 404.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2.3(1), (2) and (3)

The Attorney General is obligated to make decisions regarding prosecutions in a "judicial manner."[10]

  1. R v Gabriel, 1999 CanLII 15050 (ON SC), 137 CCC (3d) 1, 26 CR (5th) 364 (Ont. S.C.), per Hill J ("The Attorney General represents the public interest in the prosecution of crime.")
  2. Krieger v Law Society of Alberta, 2002 SCC 65 (CanLII), [2002] 3 SCR 372, per Iacobucci and Major JJ, at para 25 ("This power finds its source in the Attorney General’s general role as the official legal advisor to the Crown.")
  3. Krieger, supra (“It is a constitutional principle that the Attorneys General of this country must act independently of partisan concerns when exercising their delegated sovereign authority to initiate, continue or terminate prosecutions.”)
  4. Kieger, ibid.(“The gravity of the power to bring, manage and terminate prosecutions which lies at the heart of the Attorney General’s role has given rise to an expectation that he or she will be in this respect fully independent from the political pressures of the government.”)
  5. Krieger v Law Society of Alberta, supra, at para 29 ("Membership in Cabinet makes the principle of independence in prosecutorial functions perhaps even more important in this country than in the U.K.")
  6. R v Wetmore, 1983 CanLII 29 (SCC), [1983] 2 SCR 284, per Laskin CJ
    A.G. (Can.) v Can. Nat. Transportation, Ltd., 1983 CanLII 36 (SCC), [1983] 2 SCR 206, per Laskin CJ - Federal Govt authority to prosecute under the Combines Investigation Act is constitutional
  7. R v Hauser, 1979 CanLII 13 (SCC), [1979] 1 SCR 984, per Pigeon J
  8. R v Pelletier, 1974 CanLII 596 (ON CA), 18 CCC (2d) 516, per Estey J
  9. Pelletier, ibid.
  10. R v Smythe, [1971] 2 OR 209(*no CanLII links) , at p. 216, affd. 1970 CanLII 29 (SCC), [1971] SCR 680, per Fauteux CJ
    Hauser, supra

Delegating Authority

Unless prohibited by statute, the Attorney General of Canada may delegate a prosecution the provincial Attorney General and vice versa.[1]

  1. R v Luz, 1988 CanLII 4529 (ON SC), OR (3d) 52, per Campbell J, at p. 59 ("The power to prosecute is that of the Attorney General... He or she may prosecute personally or by counsel or agent. Unless prohibited by statute he may delegate any of his powers to subordinate officers or to counsel instructed on his behalf. No statutory power is necessary for such delegation. The power to delegate to counsel or agent is a functional necessity of the office, requiring no statutory authority.")
    see also Gentles v Ontario (Attorney General), 1996 CanLII 8166 (ON SC), 39 CRR (2d) 319, per Hurley J, at paras 46 to 48

Attorney General of Canada

Powers of the Attorney General of Canada

467.2 (1) Notwithstanding the definition of “Attorney General” in section 2, the Attorney General of Canada may conduct proceedings in respect of

(a) an offence under section 467.11 [participation in criminal organization] or 467.111 [recruitment of members — criminal organization]; or
(b) another criminal organization offence where the alleged offence arises out of conduct that in whole or in part is in relation to an alleged contravention of an Act of Parliament or a regulation made under such an Act, other than this Act or a regulation made under this Act.

For those purposes, the Attorney General of Canada may exercise all the powers and perform all the duties and functions assigned to the Attorney General by or under this Act.

Powers of the Attorney General of a province

(2) Subsection (1) does not affect the authority of the Attorney General of a province to conduct proceedings in respect of an offence referred to in section 467.11 [participation in criminal organization], 467.111 [recruitment of members — criminal organization], 467.12 [commission of offence for criminal organization] or 467.13 [instructing commission of offence for criminal organization] or to exercise any of the powers or perform any of the duties and functions assigned to the Attorney General by or under this Act.
1997, c. 23, s. 11; 2001, c. 32, s. 28; 2014, c. 17, s. 11.
[repealed 2019, c. 25, s. 185]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 467.2

Definitions for Financial Instruments and Legal Documents

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions


Documents Generally

2
...
"writing" includes a document of any kind and any mode in which, and any material on which, words or figures, whether at length or abridged, are written, printed or otherwise expressed, or a map or plan is inscribed.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

487.011 The following definitions apply in this section and in sections 487.012 to 487.0199 [preservation and production orders relating to data].
"computer data" has the same meaning as in subsection 342.1(2) [unauthorized use of computer – definitions].
...
2004, c. 3, s. 7; 2014, c. 31, s. 20.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.011

487.011 The following definitions apply in this section and in sections 487.012 to 487.0199 [preservation and production orders relating to data].
...
"data" means representations, including signs, signals or symbols, that are capable of being understood by an individual or processed by a computer system or other device. ...
2004, c. 3, s. 7; 2014, c. 31, s. 20.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.011

321 In this Part [Pt. IX – Offences Against Rights of Property (ss. 321 to 378)],
...
"document" means any paper, parchment or other material on which is recorded or marked anything that is capable of being read or understood by a person, computer system or other device, and includes a credit card...
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 321; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 42.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 321


Definitions

487.011 The following definitions apply in this section and in sections 487.012 to 487.0199 [preservation and production orders relating to data],
...
"document" means a medium on which data is registered or marked. (document)
...
2004, c. 3, s. 7; 2014, c. 31, s. 20.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.011


321 In this Part [Pt. IX – Offences Against Rights of Property (ss. 321 to 378)],
...
"false document" means a document

(a) the whole or a material part of which purports to be made by or on behalf of a person
(i) who did not make it or authorize it to be made, or
(ii) who did not in fact exist,
(b) that is made by or on behalf of the person who purports to make it but is false in some material particular,
(c) that is made in the name of an existing person, by him or under his authority, with a fraudulent intention that it should pass as being made by a person, real or fictitious, other than the person who makes it or under whose authority it is made; (faux document)

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 321; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 42.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 321

321 In this Part [Pt. IX – Offences Against Rights of Property (ss. 321 to 378)],
...
"revenue paper" means paper that is used to make stamps, licences or permits or for any purpose connected with the public revenue. (papier de revenu)
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 321; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 42.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 321

Bank Note

{{quotation2| 2
...
"bank-note" includes any negotiable instrument

(a) issued by or on behalf of a person carrying on the business of banking in or out of Canada, and
(b) issued under the authority of Parliament or under the lawful authority of the government of a state other than Canada,

intended to be used as money or as the equivalent of money, immediately on issue or at some time subsequent thereto, and includes bank bills and bank post bills;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

The meaning of "bank-note" does not include any types of cheques that are not intended to "fulfil the function of money". This includes a Government of Canada cheque[1]

  1. R v Kirkness, 2004 MBCA 175 (CanLII), 191 CCC (3d) 17, per Steel JA (3:0), at paras 8 to 9

Documents of Title

2
...
"document of title to goods" includes a bought and sold note, bill of lading, warrant, certificate or order for the delivery or transfer of goods or any other valuable thing, and any other document used in the ordinary course of business as evidence of the possession or control of goods, authorizing or purporting to authorize, by endorsement or by delivery, the person in possession of the document to transfer or receive any goods thereby represented or therein mentioned or referred to;
"document of title to lands" includes any writing that is or contains evidence of the title, or any part of the title, to real property or to any interest in real property, and any notarial or registrar’s copy thereof and any duplicate instrument, memorial, certificate or document authorized or required by any law in force in any part of Canada with respect to registration of titles that relates to title to real property or to any interest in real property;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


Valuable Security

2
...
"valuable security" includes

(a) an order, exchequer acquittance or other security that entitles or evidences the title of any person
(i) to a share or interest in a public stock or fund or in any fund of a body corporate, company or society, or
(ii) to a deposit in a financial institution,
(b) any debenture, deed, bond, bill, note, warrant, order or other security for money or for payment of money,
(c) a document of title to lands or goods wherever situated,
(d) a stamp or writing that secures or evidences title to or an interest in a chattel personal, or that evidences delivery of a chattel personal, and
(e) a release, receipt, discharge or other instrument evidencing payment of money;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

A money order is valuable security in the amount indicated on its face.[1]

4
[omitted (1)]

Value of valuable security

(2) For the purposes of this Act, the following rules apply for the purpose of determining the value of a valuable security where value is material:

(a) where the valuable security is one mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition "valuable security" in section 2 [general Code definitions], the value is the value of the share, interest, deposit or unpaid money, as the case may be, that is secured by the valuable security;
(b) where the valuable security is one mentioned in paragraph (c) or (d) of the definition "valuable security" in section 2 [general Code definitions], the value is the value of the lands, goods, chattel personal or interest in the chattel personal, as the case may be; and
(c) where the valuable security is one mentioned in paragraph (e) of the definition "valuable security" in section 2 [general Code definitions], the value is the amount of money that has been paid.

[omitted (3), (4), (5), (6), (7) and (8)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 4; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 3; 1994, c. 44, s. 3; 1997, c. 18, s. 2; 2008, c. 18, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 4(2)

Definitions

321 In this Part [Pt. IX – Offences Against Rights of Property (ss. 321 to 378)],
...
"exchequer bill" means a bank-note, bond, note, debenture or security that is issued or guaranteed by Her Majesty under the authority of Parliament or the legislature of a province; (bon du Trésor)
"exchequer bill paper" means paper that is used to manufacture exchequer bills; (papier de bons du Trésor)
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 321; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 42.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 321

  1. R v Zinck, 1986 CanLII 4757 (NB CA), 32 CCC (3d) 150, per Stratton CJ and Angers JA

Testamentary Instrument and Trustee

2
...
"testamentary instrument" includes any will, codicil or other testamentary writing or appointment, during the life of the testator whose testamentary disposition it purports to be and after his death, whether it relates to real or personal property or to both;
"trustee" means a person who is declared by any Act to be a trustee or is, by the law of a province, a trustee, and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a trustee on an express trust created by deed, will or instrument in writing, or by parol; (fiduciaire)
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Legislative and Court Documents

2 In this Act,
"Act" includes

(a) an Act of Parliament,
(b) an Act of the legislature of the former Province of Canada,
(c) an Act of the legislature of a province, and
(d) an Act or ordinance of the legislature of a province, territory or place in force at the time that province, territory or place became a province of Canada;

...
"count" means a charge in an information or indictment;
...
"indictment" includes

(a) information or a count therein,
(b) a plea, replication or other pleading, and
(c) any record;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Credit Card

321 In this Part [Pt. IX – Offences Against Rights of Property (ss. 321 to 378)],
...
"credit card" means any card, plate, coupon book or other device issued or otherwise distributed for the purpose of being used

(a) on presentation to obtain, on credit, money, goods, services or any other thing of value, or
(b) in an automated teller machine, a remote service unit or a similar automated banking device to obtain any of the services offered through the machine, unit or device;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 321; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 42.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 321

,

Definitions of Parties, Persons, and Organizations

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions

Person

Section 2 states:

2 In this Act,
...
"every one", "person" and "owner", and similar expressions, include Her Majesty and an organization;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Under s. 2, a "person" may include organizations such as a union.[1]

  1. United Nurses of Alberta v Alberta (Attorney General), 1992 CanLII 99 (SCC), [1992] 1 SCR 901

Internationally Protected Persons

2 In this Act,
...
"internationally protected person" means

(a) a head of state, including any member of a collegial body that performs the functions of a head of state under the constitution of the state concerned, a head of a government or a minister of foreign affairs, whenever that person is in a state other than the state in which he holds that position or office,
(b) a member of the family of a person described in paragraph (a) who accompanies that person in a state other than the state in which that person holds that position or office,
(c) a representative or an official of a state or an official or agent of an international organization of an intergovernmental character who, at the time when and at the place where an offence referred to in subsection 7(3) is committed against his person or any property referred to in section 431 [attack on premises, residence or transport of internationally protected person] that is used by him, is entitled, pursuant to international law, to special protection from any attack on his person, freedom or dignity, or
(d) a member of the family of a representative, official or agent described in paragraph (c) who forms part of his household, if the representative, official or agent, at the time when and at the place where any offence referred to in subsection 7(3) is committed against the member of his family or any property referred to in section 431 [attack on premises, residence or transport of internationally protected person] that is used by that member, is entitled, pursuant to international law, to special protection from any attack on his person, freedom or dignity;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

2 In this Act,
...
"United Nations operation" means an operation that is established by the competent organ of the United Nations in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations and is conducted under United Nations authority and control, if the operation is for the purpose of maintaining or restoring international peace and security or if the Security Council or the General Assembly of the United Nations has declared, for the purposes of the Convention on the Safety of United Nations and Associated Personnel, that there exists an exceptional risk to the safety of the personnel participating in the operation. It does not include an operation authorized by the Security Council as an enforcement action under Chapter VII of the Charter of the United Nations in which any of the personnel are engaged as combatants against organized armed forces and to which the law of international armed conflict applies; ...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

2 In this Act,
...
"United Nations personnel" means

(a) persons who are engaged or deployed by the Secretary-General of the United Nations as members of the military, police or civilian components of a United Nations operation, or
(b) any other officials or experts who are on mission of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies or the International Atomic Energy Agency and who are present in an official capacity in the area where a United Nations operation is conducted;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Associated Personnel

2 In this Act,
...
"associated personnel" means persons who are

(a) assigned by a government or an intergovernmental organization with the agreement of the competent organ of the United Nations,
(b) engaged by the Secretary-General of the United Nations, by a specialized agency of the United Nations or by the International Atomic Energy Agency, or
(c) deployed by a humanitarian non-governmental organization or agency under an agreement with the Secretary-General of the United Nations, by a specialized agency of the United Nations or by the International Atomic Energy Agency,

to carry out activities in support of the fulfilment of the mandate of a United Nations operation; ...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Children

2 In this Act,
...
"newly-born child" means a person under the age of one year;
...

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Organization

2 In this Act,
...
"organization" means

(a) a public body, body corporate, society, company, firm, partnership, trade union or municipality, or
(b) an association of persons that
(i) is created for a common purpose,
(ii) has an operational structure, and
(iii) holds itself out to the public as an association of persons;

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Government Organizations

2 In this Act,
...
"government" or "public facility" means a facility or conveyance, whether permanent or temporary, that is used or occupied in connection with their official duties by representatives of a state, members of a government, members of a legislature, members of the judiciary, or officials or employees of a state or of any other public authority or public entity, or by officials or employees of an intergovernmental organization;
[see "Places" below for "municipality"]
"public department" means a department of the Government of Canada or a branch thereof or a board, commission, corporation or other body that is an agent of Her Majesty in right of Canada;
"public stores" includes any personal property that is under the care, supervision, administration or control of a public department or of any person in the service of a public department;

[annotation(s) added]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


2 In this Act,
...
"Canadian Forces" means the armed forces of Her Majesty raised by Canada;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Prisons

2 In this Act,
...
"prison" includes a penitentiary, common jail, public or reformatory prison, lock-up, guard-room or other place in which persons who are charged with or convicted of offences are usually kept in custody;
...

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Military

2 In this Act,
...
"Her Majesty’s Forces" means the naval, army and air forces of Her Majesty wherever raised, and includes the Canadian Forces;
...
"military" shall be construed as relating to all or any of the Canadian Forces; (militaire)
"military law" includes all laws, regulations or orders relating to the Canadian Forces; (loi militaire)
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Lawyers

2 In this Act,
...
"counsel" means a barrister or solicitor, in respect of the matters or things that barristers and solicitors, respectively, are authorized by the law of a province to do or perform in relation to legal proceedings; R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Accused or Offender

See also: Accused in Court

2 In this Act,
...
"offender" means a person who has been determined by a court to be guilty of an offence, whether on acceptance of a plea of guilty or on a finding of guilt;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Definitions

493 In this Part [Pt. XVI – Compelling Appearance of an Accused Before a Justice and Interim Release (ss. 493 to 529.5)],
...
"accused" includes

(a) a person to whom a peace officer has issued an appearance notice under section 497 [appearance notice by peace officer], and
(b) a person arrested for a criminal offence;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 493; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 16, s. 5, c. 17, s. 12; 1992, c. 51, s. 37; 1994, c. 44, s. 39; 1999, c. 3, s. 30; 2002, c. 7, s. 143; 2015, c. 3, s. 51; 2019, c. 25, s. 209.
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 493

Definitions

672.1 (1) In this Part [Pt. XX.1 – Mental Disorder (ss. 672.1 to 672.95)],
...
"accused" includes a defendant in summary conviction proceedings and an accused in respect of whom a verdict of not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder has been rendered;
...
[omitted (2)]
1991, c. 43, s. 4; 2005, c. 22, s. 1; 2014, c. 6, s. 2.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 672.1

Definitions

716 In this Part [Pt. XXIII – Sentencing (ss. 716 to 751.1)],
...
"accused" includes a defendant;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 716; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 154; 1995, c. 22, s. 6; 1999, c. 5, s. 29(E).
[annotation(s) added]

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 493


Victim or Complainant

See also: Victim Impact Statements and Role of the Victim and Third Parties

Attorney General, Crown, or Prosecutor

Places

98
[omitted (1)]

Definitions of break and place

(2) In this section, "break" has the same meaning as in section 321 [offences against rights of property – definitions], and "place" means any building or structure — or part of one — and any motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft, railway vehicle, container or trailer.

[omitted (3) and (4)]
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 98; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 13; 1991, c. 40, s. 11; 1995, c. 39, s. 139; 2008, c. 6, s. 9.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 98(2)


197 (1) In this Part [Pt. VII – Disorderly Houses, Gaming and Betting (ss. 197 to 213)],
...
"place" includes any place, whether or not

(a) it is covered or enclosed,
(b) it is used permanently or temporarily, or
(c) any person has an exclusive right of user with respect to it; 

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 197; R.S., 1985, c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 29; 2014, c. 25, s. 12; 2019, c. 25, s. 69.1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 197(1)

286.1

[omitted (1), (2), (3) and (4)]
(5) For the purposes of this section, "place" and "public place" have the same meaning as in subsection 197(1).

2014, c. 25, s. 20; 2019, c. 25, s. 108.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 286.1(5)

2 In this Act,
...
"municipality" includes the corporation of a city, town, village, county, township, parish or other territorial or local division of a province, the inhabitants of which are incorporated or are entitled to hold property collectively for a public purpose;
"territorial division" includes any province, county, union of counties, township, city, town, parish or other judicial division or place;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

83.01(1)
...
"Canadian" means a Canadian citizen, a permanent resident within the meaning of subsection 2(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act or a body corporate incorporated and continued under the laws of Canada or a province. (Canadien)


CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 83.01

Judges

CDSA

Section 2 of the CDSA defines "judge" as:

2 In this Act,
...
"judge" means a judge as defined in section 552 of the Criminal Code [definitions - judges] or a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction;
"justice" has the same meaning as in section 2 [general Code definitions] of the Criminal Code;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.
[annotation(s) added]

CDSA


Note up: 2

Other Persons

2 In this Act,
...
"clerk of the court" includes a person, by whatever name or title he may be designated, who from time to time performs the duties of a clerk of the court;
...
"common-law partner", in relation to an individual, means a person who is cohabiting with the individual in a conjugal relationship, having so cohabited for a period of at least one year;
...

"internationally protected person" means

(a) a head of state, including any member of a collegial body that performs the functions of a head of state under the constitution of the state concerned, a head of a government or a minister of foreign affairs, whenever that person is in a state other than the state in which he holds that position or office,
(b) a member of the family of a person described in paragraph (a) who accompanies that person in a state other than the state in which that person holds that position or office,
(c) a representative or an official of a state or an official or agent of an international organization of an intergovernmental character who, at the time when and at the place where an offence referred to in subsection 7(3) is committed against his person or any property referred to in section 431 that is used by him, is entitled, pursuant to international law, to special protection from any attack on his person, freedom or dignity, or
(d) a member of the family of a representative, official or agent described in paragraph (c) who forms part of his household, if the representative, official or agent, at the time when and at the place where any offence referred to in subsection 7(3) is committed against the member of his family or any property referred to in section 431 that is used by that member, is entitled, pursuant to international law, to special protection from any attack on his person, freedom or dignity;

...

"newly-born child" means a person under the age of one year;
...

"representative", in respect of an organization, means a director, partner, employee, member, agent or contractor of the organization;
...
"senior officer" means a representative who plays an important role in the establishment of an organization’s policies or is responsible for managing an important aspect of the organization’s activities and, in the case of a body corporate, includes a director, its chief executive officer and its chief financial officer;
...

"trustee" means a person who is declared by any Act to be a trustee or is, by the law of a province, a trustee, and, without restricting the generality of the foregoing, includes a trustee on an express trust created by deed, will or instrument in writing, or by parol;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


Public Officer

2 In this Act,
...
"public officer" includes

(a) an officer of customs or excise,
(b) an officer of the Canadian Forces,
(c) an officer of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police, and
(d) any officer while the officer is engaged in enforcing the laws of Canada relating to revenue, customs, excise, trade or navigation;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Definitions

487.011 The following definitions apply in this section and in sections 487.012 to 487.0199 [preservation and production orders relating to data].
...
"public officer" means a public officer who is appointed or designated to administer or enforce a federal or provincial law and whose duties include the enforcement of this Act or any other Act of Parliament. (fonctionnaire public)
...
2004, c. 3, s. 7; 2014, c. 31, s. 20.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 487.011

Technology

s. 2
...
"audioconference" means any means of telecommunication that allows the judge or justice and any individual to communicate orally in a proceeding; (audioconférence)

...
"videoconference" means any means of telecommunication that allows the judge, justice or chairperson of a Review Board, as defined in subsection 672.1(1) [mental disorders – definitions], and any individual to engage in simultaneous visual and oral communication in a proceeding; (vidéoconférence)

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2


Transportation-related Definitions

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions

The phrase "any street, road, highway, or other public place" impliedly refers to places that have "a significant segment of the public has access as of right."[1]

Whether something is a "public road" is a question of fact.[2] It is typically a "road to which the public generally have access and not one that has been constructed for the use and benefit of a special group."[3]

2 In this Act,
...
"highway" means a road to which the public has the right of access, and includes bridges over which or tunnels through which a road passes;
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Railway Equipment

2 In this Act,
...
"railway equipment" means

(a) any machine that is constructed for movement exclusively on lines of railway, whether or not the machine is capable of independent motion, or
(b) any vehicle that is constructed for movement both on and off lines of railway while the adaptations of that vehicle for movement on lines of railway are in use;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

  1. R v Maxwell, 2011 NWTTC 4 (CanLII), per Gorin J
  2. R v McNab, 2014 SKPC 180 (CanLII), per Plemel J, at para 15
  3. McNab, ibid., at para 15
    R v Fiddler, 2004 SKQB 113 (CanLII), 247 Sask R 47, per Zarzeczny J, at para 23

,

Definition of Terms Relating to Transactions and Transferences

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed November 2018. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

There are several electronic transmission based offences with actions (actus reus) relating the distribution of electronic files.

They include:

Making Available

Making Available and Peer-to-Peer Filesharing

The act of sharing a file through file-sharing software will make out the actus reus of making available.[1] Making available is made out by a person who downloads the file "which is thereafter publicly accessible through file sharing". The only overt act required is that of downloading the file using file sharing software that can make it accessible. There is effectively no difference between this and making the file accessible on a website.[2]

Accessible Files

A accessible file is one that is stored on a hard drive and the accused is able to access at the time the item was seized.[3]

  1. R v Benson, 2010 SKQB 459 (CanLII), SJ No 758, per Gerein J, at para 30
  2. R v Spencer, 2011 SKCA 144 (CanLII), 283 CCC (3d) 384, per Caldwell JA, at para 80
  3. R v Mollon, 2019 BCSC 423 (CanLII), per Crossin J, at para 29

See Also

Peace Officers

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2020. (Rev. # 79508)

General Principles

See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions

The law vests a "peace officer" with a number of powers and immunities, including the powers relating to detention, arrest, search, and seizure.

Statutory Definition

"Peace Officer" is defined under s. 2:

2
...
"peace officer" includes

(a) a mayor, warden, reeve, sheriff, deputy sheriff, sheriff’s officer and justice of the peace,
(b) a member of the Correctional Service of Canada who is designated as a peace officer pursuant to Part I of the Corrections and Conditional Release Act, and a warden, deputy warden, instructor, keeper, jailer, guard and any other officer or permanent employee of a prison other than a penitentiary as defined in Part I of the Corrections and Conditional Release Act,
(c) a police officer, police constable, bailiff, constable, or other person employed for the preservation and maintenance of the public peace or for the service or execution of civil process,
(c.1) a designated officer as defined in section 2 of the Integrated Cross-border Law Enforcement Operations Act, when
(i) participating in an integrated cross-border operation, as defined in section 2 of that Act, or
(ii) engaging in an activity incidental to such an operation, including travel for the purpose of participating in the operation and appearances in court arising from the operation,
(d) an officer within the meaning of the Customs Act, the Excise Act or the Excise Act, 2001, or a person having the powers of such an officer, when performing any duty in the administration of any of those Acts,
(d.1) an officer authorized under subsection 138(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act,
(e) a person designated as a fishery guardian under the Fisheries Act when performing any duties or functions under that Act and a person designated as a fishery officer under the Fisheries Act when performing any duties or functions under that Act or the Coastal Fisheries Protection Act,
(f) the pilot in command of an aircraft
(i) registered in Canada under regulations made under the Aeronautics Act, or
(ii) leased without crew and operated by a person who is qualified under regulations made under the Aeronautics Act to be registered as owner of an aircraft registered in Canada under those regulations,
while the aircraft is in flight, and
(g) officers and non-commissioned members of the Canadian Forces who are
(i) appointed for the purposes of section 156 of the National Defence Act, or
(ii) employed on duties that the Governor in Council, in regulations made under the National Defence Act for the purposes of this paragraph, has prescribed to be of such a kind as to necessitate that the officers and non-commissioned members performing them have the powers of peace officers;

...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

The definition of "peace officer" within the Code "serves only to grant additional powers to enforce the criminal law to persons who must otherwise operate within the limits of their statutory or common law sources of authority."[1]

The list in s. 2 is not comprehensive and can include other persons not listed in the section.

Professions That are Not Peace Officers

Peace officers do not include:

  • a private bailiff[2]
  • municipal by-law enforcement officer[3]
  • an off-duty young offender corrections officer[4]

This does not mean that these professions cannot be peace officers. It only means that unless they are specifically made peace officers under other legislation they will not be definition fit into the definition of "peace officer" under s. 2 of the Code.

Provincial and federal acts will appoint persons to be "peace officers" within the meaning of the Criminal Code. In these cases, this designation will be limited to Criminal Code peace officer powers while the officer is in execution of duties under the enabling Act and not pursuant to Criminal Code offences.[5] When doing anything outside of the enabling legislation they are considered civilians.[6]

  1. R v Nolan, 1987 CanLII 66 (SCC), [1987] 1 SCR 1212, per Dickson CJ, at para 20
  2. R v Burns, 2002 MBCA 161 (CanLII), 170 CCC (3d) 288, per Twaddle JA, at paras 8 to 10
    R c Boisseau, 1981 CanLII 2538 (QC CM), [1981] R.L. 155, per Léger J - superior court bailiff
  3. R v Laramee, 1972 CanLII 1365 (NWT TC), 9 CCC (2d) 433 (N.W.T. Mag. Ct.), per De Weert CJ cited in R v Parsons, 2001 ABQB 42 (CanLII), 80 CRR (2d) 355, per McMahon J, at para 14
  4. R v Pillipow, 2003 SKQB 49 (CanLII), 229 Sask R 306, per Rothery J
  5. see e.g. R v Beaman, 1963 CanLII 73 (SCC), [1963] SCR 445, per Ritchie J
    Wright v The Queen, 1973 CanLII 858 (SKQB), 6 WWR 687 (Sask.), per Maher J
    R v Ingram, 1974 CanLII 985 (SK CA), 5 WWR 759, 18 CCC (2d) 200, per Culliton CJ
    Laramee, supra
  6. R v Thibeault, 2007 NBCA 67 (CanLII), 226 CCC (3d) 334, per Drapeau CJ, at para 15

Federal Agencies

A customs officer or excise officer is a peace officer under s. 2(d) when conducting duties under the Customs Act.[1] Sections 163.4 and 163.5 of the Customs Act authorizes customs officers to have the same powers as a peace officer under the Criminal Code in a limited context.[2]

  1. R v Thibeault, 2007 NBCA 67 (CanLII), 226 CCC (3d) 334, per Drapeau CJ, at para 15
  2. see Customs Act s. 163.4 and 163.5

Other Members of Law Enforcement Agencies

A traffic patrol officer can be a peace officer.[1]

A police constable under s. 44 of the Railway Safety Act is a peace officer.[2]

A "special constable" is a peace officer only for the limited purpose of their mandate, which can include participating in the execution of a search warrant.[3]

  1. R v McCloy, 1987 CanLII 4476 (SKQB), 2 MVR (2d) 293, 64 Sack. R. 166, per Noble J
  2. R v Lord, 2010 BCSC 1046 (CanLII), per Butler J
  3. R v Semeniuk, 2007 BCCA 399 (CanLII), 224 CCC (3d) 71, per Saunders JA, at para 15

Other Members of Municipal Organizations

A pound-keeper can be a peace officer.[1]

An animal control officer is only an officer for the limited purpose of "enforcing animal control legislation."[2]

  1. R v Moore, [1983] 5 WWR 176(*no CanLII links)
  2. R v Jones and Huber, [1975] 5 WWR 97, (Yukon Mag. Ct.)(*no CanLII links)

Wildlife Officers

Across many provinces, game wardens, conservation officers and wildlife officers can be a peace officer within the meaning of s. 2(c) of the Code when enforcing enabling provincial legislation.[1]

  1. R v Beaman, 1963 CanLII 73 (SCC), [1963] SCR 445, per Ritchie J - a game warden under the Game Act (NB)
    R v Jones, [1975] 5 WWR 97, 30 CRNS 127 (Y.T.)(*no CanLII links) - peace officer under s. 2(c)
    R v Rutt, 1981 CanLII 2083 (SK CA), 59 CCC (2d) 147, per Culliton JA - conservation officer under the Wildlife Act (Sask)
    R v Rushton, 1981 CanLII 3156 (NB CA), 62 CCC (2d) 403 (N.B.C.A.), per Hughes CJ - game warden
    R v Goy (1969), 5 CRNS 385, 67 WWR 375(*no CanLII links) - wardens appointed under the wildlife act is a peace officer
    R v Cook, 2006 SKPC 41 (CanLII), 278 Sask R 93, per Tucker J

Military Officers

Only under s. 2(g)(ii), and not s. 2(g)(i), is a military police officer is a peace officer.[1]

Military police may make a breath demand to a civilian present on a military base.[2]

A military police officer does not have authority outside of the base to deal with civilians.[3]

  1. R v Bryden, 1995 CanLII 4542 (NS SC), 13 MVR (3d) 89, 139 NSR (2d) 131, 397 APR 131, per MacDonald J
    R v Nolan, 1987 CanLII 66 (SCC), [1987] 1 SCR 1212, per Dickson CJ
    R v Haynes, 1994 CanLII 4160 (NS CA), 367 APR 311, per Freedman JA
    R v Harvey, 1979 ABCA 275 (CanLII), 18 AR 382, per Clement JA
    R v Smith, 1982 CanLII 358 (BC CA), 2 CCC (3d) 250, per Hinkson JA
    R v Cogswell (1979), 2 MVR 34, [1979] NBJ No 31 (N.B.C.A.)(*no CanLII links)
  2. Smith, supra
  3. Harvey, supra

Aboriginal and First Nations Officers

Aboriginal police are governed by provincial police acts.[1]

A special constable appointed under the Police Act to serve as a band constable.[2] This does not mean they are "police officers" within the meaning of the provincial Police Acts.[3] </ref> A first nations constable may be authorized as a "peace officer" outside of the territorial limits of the reserve based on their enabling legislation. The scope of power is determined by their "specified duties" as set out in the legislation, regulations, policing agreement, and terms of appointment.[4]

First nations peacekeepers are not peace officers.[5]

  1. s. 87 of the Police Act (NS)
    s. 38 of the Police Act (NB)
  2. R v Whiskeyjack, 1984 ABCA 336 (CanLII), 17 CCC (3d) 245, per Prowse JA
    R v Stephens, 1995 CanLII 626 (ON CA), 102 CCC (3d) 416, per Finlayson JA
  3. R v Decorte, 2003 CanLII 57434 (ON CA), per curiam, appealed to [2005] 1 SCR 133, 2005 SCC 9 (CanLII), per Fish J - related to a RIDE stop performed by the special constable just outside territorial limits of the reserve.
  4. Decorte, ibid.
  5. R v Suggashie, 2012 ONSC 2292 (CanLII), per Fregeau J, at paras 22 to 29

See Also

Terrorism Definitions

This page was last substantively updated or reviewed January 2020. (Rev. # 79508)
See also: Criminal Code and Related Definitions

"Terrorism offence"

2 In this Act,
...
"terrorism offence" means

(a) an offence under any of sections 83.02 to 83.04 [financing of terrorism offences] or 83.18 to 83.23 [participating, facilitating, instructing and harbouring terrorist offences],
(b) an indictable offence under this or any other Act of Parliament committed for the benefit of, at the direction of or in association with a terrorist group,
(c) an indictable offence under this or any other Act of Parliament where the act or omission constituting the offence also constitutes a terrorist activity, or
(d) a conspiracy or an attempt to commit, or being an accessory after the fact in relation to, or any counselling in relation to, an offence referred to in paragraph (a), (b) or (c);

...

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

"Terrorist Group"

See also: Participating in Terrorist Activity (Offence)

s. 2.
...
"terrorist group" has the same meaning as in subsection 83.01(1) [terrorism offences – definitions];
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

83.01 (1)
...
"terrorist group" means

(a) an entity that has as one of its purposes or activities facilitating or carrying out any terrorist activity, or
(b) a listed entity,

and includes an association of such entities.
...
[omitted (1.1), (1.2) and (2)]
2001, c. 41, ss. 4, 126; 2010, c. 19, s. 1; 2013, c. 13, s. 6.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 83.01

A "terrorist group" can consist of a single individual.[1] And an "entity" can include a single "person".[2]

  1. R v Khawaja, 2012 SCC 69 (CanLII), [2012] 3 SCR 555, per McLachlin CJ, at para 26
    United States of America v Nadarajah, 2010 ONCA 859 (CanLII), 266 CCC (3d) 447, per curiam, at para 20, aff’d 2012 SCC 70 (CanLII), [2012] 3 SCR 609, per McLachlin CJ
    Ali, supra, at paras 28 to 29 ("The appellant and respondent agree on three things. ... that a “terrorist group” within s. 83.01(1) can consist of a single individual.")
  2. Ali, ibid., at paras 28 to 29 ("The appellant and respondent agree on three things. ... that a “terrorist group” within s. 83.01(1) can consist of a single individual.")

"Terrorist Activity"

See also: Participating in Terrorist Activity (Offence)

s. 2
...
"terrorist activity" has the same meaning as in subsection 83.01(1) [terrorism offences – definitions];
"terrorist group" has the same meaning as in subsection 83.01(1) [terrorism offences – definitions];
...
R.S., 1985, c. C-46, s. 2; R.S., 1985, c. 11 (1st Supp.), s. 2, c. 27 (1st Supp.), ss. 2, 203, c. 31 (1st Supp.), s. 61, c. 1 (2nd Supp.), s. 213, c. 27 (2nd Supp.), s. 10, c. 35 (2nd Supp.), s. 34, c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 55, c. 40 (4th Supp.), s. 2; 1990, c. 17, s. 7; 1991, c. 1, s. 28, c. 40, s. 1, c. 43, ss. 1, 9; 1992, c. 20, s. 216, c. 51, s. 32; 1993, c. 28, s. 78, c. 34, s. 59; 1994, c. 44, s. 2; 1995, c. 29, ss. 39, 40, c. 39, s. 138; 1997, c. 23, s. 1; 1998, c. 30, s. 14; 1999, c. 3, s. 25, c. 5, s. 1, c. 25, s. 1(Preamble), c. 28, s. 155; 2000, c. 12, s. 91, c. 25, s. 1(F); 2001, c. 32, s. 1, c. 41, ss. 2, 131; 2002, c. 7, s. 137, c. 22, s. 324; 2003, c. 21, s. 1; 2004, c. 3, s. 1; 2005, c. 10, s. 34, c. 38, s. 58, c. 40, ss. 1, 7; 2006, c. 14, s. 1; 2007, c. 13, s. 1; 2012, c.1, s. 160, c. 19, s. 371; 2013, c. 13, s. 2; 2014, c. 17, s. 1, c. 23, s. 2, c. 25, s. 2; 2015, c. 3, s. 44, c. 13, s. 3, c. 20, s. 15; 2018, c. 21, s. 12; 2019, c. 13, s. 140; 2019, c. 25, s. 1; 2022, c. 17, s. 1.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 2

Section 83.01 states:

83.01 (1)
...
"terrorist activity" means

(a) an act or omission that is committed in or outside Canada and that, if committed in Canada, is one of the following offences:
(i) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2) that implement the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft, signed at The Hague on December 16, 1970,
(ii) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2) that implement the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Civil Aviation, signed at Montreal on September 23, 1971,
(iii) the offences referred to in subsection 7(3) that implement the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of Crimes against Internationally Protected Persons, including Diplomatic Agents, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 14, 1973,
(iv) the offences referred to in subsection 7(3.1) that implement the International Convention against the Taking of Hostages, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 17, 1979,
(v) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2.21) that implement the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material, done at Vienna and New York on March 3, 1980, as amended by the Amendment to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material, done at Vienna on July 8, 2005 and the International Convention for the Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism, done at New York on September 14, 2005,
(vi) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2) that implement the Protocol for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts of Violence at Airports Serving International Civil Aviation, supplementary to the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Civil Aviation, signed at Montreal on February 24, 1988,
(vii) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2.1) that implement the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Maritime Navigation, done at Rome on March 10, 1988,
(viii) the offences referred to in subsection 7(2.1) or (2.2) that implement the Protocol for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Fixed Platforms Located on the Continental Shelf, done at Rome on March 10, 1988,
(ix) the offences referred to in subsection 7(3.72) that implement the International Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 15, 1997, and
(x) the offences referred to in subsection 7(3.73) that implement the International Convention for the Suppression of the Financing of Terrorism, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 9, 1999, or
(b) an act or omission, in or outside Canada,
(i) that is committed
(A) in whole or in part for a political, religious or ideological purpose, objective or cause, and
(B) in whole or in part with the intention of intimidating the public, or a segment of the public, with regard to its security, including its economic security, or compelling a person, a government or a domestic or an international organization to do or to refrain from doing any act, whether the public or the person, government or organization is inside or outside Canada, and
(ii) that intentionally
(A) causes death or serious bodily harm to a person by the use of violence,
(B) endangers a person’s life,
(C) causes a serious risk to the health or safety of the public or any segment of the public,
(D) causes substantial property damage, whether to public or private property, if causing such damage is likely to result in the conduct or harm referred to in any of clauses (A) to (C), or
(E) causes serious interference with or serious disruption of an essential service, facility or system, whether public or private, other than as a result of advocacy, protest, dissent or stoppage of work that is not intended to result in the conduct or harm referred to in any of clauses (A) to (C),

and includes a conspiracy, attempt or threat to commit any such act or omission, or being an accessory after the fact or counselling in relation to any such act or omission, but, for greater certainty, does not include an act or omission that is committed during an armed conflict and that, at the time and in the place of its commission, is in accordance with customary international law or conventional international law applicable to the conflict, or the activities undertaken by military forces of a state in the exercise of their official duties, to the extent that those activities are governed by other rules of international law.
...

For greater certainty

(1.1) For greater certainty, the expression of a political, religious or ideological thought, belief or opinion does not come within paragraph (b) of the definition “terrorist activity” in subsection (1) [terrorism offences – definitions] unless it constitutes an act or omission that satisfies the criteria of that paragraph.

For greater certainty

(1.2) For greater certainty, a suicide bombing is an act that comes within paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition terrorist activity in subsection (1) [terrorism offences – definitions] if it satisfies the criteria of that paragraph.

Facilitation

(2) For the purposes of this Part, facilitation shall be construed in accordance with subsection 83.19(2) [facilitating terrorist activty – definition of facilitation].
2001, c. 41, ss. 4, 126; 2010, c. 19, s. 1; 2013, c. 13, s. 6.

CCC (CanLII), (DOJ)


Note up: 83.01(1), (1.1), (1.2), and (2)

Section 2 defines "terrorist activity" as being identical to the definition under s. 83.01.

Mens Rea

Proof of the mens rea of a terrorist activity requires:[1]

  1. intention "to bring about consequence described in subparagraphs (1)(b)(ii)(A) to (B)" (ie. bring about prohibited consequence);
  2. intention "to bring about either consequence described in subsection (1)(b)(i)(B)" (ie. ulterior intention for a further consequence); and,
  3. it must be "for a political, religious or ideological purpose, objective, or cause in subsection (1)(b)(i)(A)" (ie. specified purpose or motive).
Constitutionality

The definition of "terrorist activity" under section 83.01 of the Code does not violate s. 2(b) Charter rights to freedom of expression.[2] The activity either involves the use of violence or otherwise is destructive to the principles underlying the right.[3]

  1. R v Ali, 2019 ONCA 1006 (CanLII), per Watt JA, at para 56
    R v Khawaja, 2010 ONCA 862 (CanLII), 273 CCC (3d) 415, per curiam, at paras 82 to 86 aff’d 2012 SCC 69 (CanLII), [2012] 3 SCR 555, per McLachlin CJ
  2. R v Khawaja, 2012 SCC 69 (CanLII), [2012] 3 SCR 555, per McLachlin CJ
  3. Khawaja (SCC), ibid.

"List of Entities"

Other Related Definitions

PART II.1 Terrorism
Interpretation
Definitions

83.01 (1) The following definitions apply in this Part.
"Canadian" means a Canadian citizen, a permanent resident within the meaning of subsection 2(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act or a body corporate incorporated and continued under the laws of Canada or a province. (Canadien)
"entity" means a person, group, trust, partnership or fund or an unincorporated association or organization. (entité)
"listed entity" means an entity on a